The nurse prepares to give a bath and change the bed linens of a client with cutaneous Kaposi's sarcoma lesions. The lesions are open and draining a scant amount of serous fluid. Which would the nurse incorporate into the plan during the bathing of this client?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (Wearing a gown and gloves). When dealing with open and draining lesions like those seen in cutaneous Kaposi's sarcoma, it is important for the nurse to wear a gown and gloves to protect themselves from exposure to the serous fluid. The gown provides an additional layer of protection for the nurse's clothing, while gloves prevent direct contact with the fluid. Wearing just gloves (choice A) may not provide enough protection for the nurse's clothing. Adding a mask (choice C) is unnecessary since the serous fluid is not airborne. Choice D is incorrect as changing the bed linens with just gloves does not provide sufficient protection for the nurse's clothing.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum creatinine level. Foscarnet, an antiviral medication, can cause nephrotoxicity. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is crucial to assess renal function and detect any potential kidney damage. CD4+ T cell count (A) is important in HIV management but not specific to foscarnet monitoring. Lymphocyte count (B) and serum albumin level (C) are not directly related to foscarnet therapy or its potential side effects.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Refer for chemotherapy. Chemotherapy is the best next step for bronchioalveolar adenocarcinoma to target and shrink the tumor, control metastasis, and improve symptoms. It is a standard treatment for advanced-stage lung cancer. Option A (Refer to hospice) is premature as chemotherapy can improve quality of life and survival. Option B (Refer for lobectomy) is not suitable for advanced-stage cancer. Option D (Refer for radiation therapy) may be used in combination with chemotherapy but is not the initial treatment of choice.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: GnRH analogue. In a 75-year-old man with prostate cancer and elevated PSA levels, GnRH analogues are the treatment of choice to suppress testosterone production and inhibit tumor growth. Observation (A) is not recommended due to the aggressive nature of prostate cancer. Radiation therapy (B) may be used as adjuvant therapy but is not the primary treatment for advanced disease. Estrogen therapy (C) is not recommended in men due to its side effects. Choosing GnRH analogues (D) is supported by guidelines for advanced prostate cancer management.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Acute myeloid leukemia. The clinical presentation of fever, bone pain, ecchymoses, and presence of Auer rods on smear is highly suggestive of acute myeloid leukemia. AML is characterized by the rapid proliferation of abnormal myeloid cells in the bone marrow, leading to symptoms such as fever, bone pain, and easy bruising. The presence of Auer rods on smear is a hallmark finding in AML. Multiple myeloma (A) presents with lytic bone lesions, hypercalcemia, and monoclonal gammopathy. Myelofibrosis (B) is characterized by bone marrow fibrosis, splenomegaly, and teardrop-shaped red blood cells. Chronic myelogenous leukemia (D) typically presents with an elevated white blood cell count, splenomegaly, and the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome.