ATI LPN
LPN Nursing Fundamentals Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is teaching the client with insulin-dependent diabetes the signs of hypoglycemia. Which of the following signs is associated with hypoglycemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tremulousness is a classic sign of hypoglycemia in insulin-dependent diabetes, resulting from the autonomic nervous system's response to low glucose, triggering adrenaline release shakiness signals urgent need for sugar. Slow pulse, nausea, or flushed skin align more with other conditions or hyperglycemia. Nurses teach this symptom for self-recognition, enabling rapid intervention with glucose sources, preventing severe outcomes like seizures, critical for diabetes management.
Question 2 of 9
A client has a new diagnosis of GERD. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching about dietary management?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease the intake of high-fat foods. High-fat foods can exacerbate symptoms of GERD by delaying stomach emptying and increasing the risk of reflux. By reducing high-fat foods in the diet, the client can help manage symptoms of GERD and decrease the likelihood of complications. Choice A is incorrect because increasing high-fat foods can worsen GERD symptoms. Choice C is unrelated as gluten is not a specific concern for GERD. Choice D is incorrect as increasing dairy products may lead to increased fat intake, which is not recommended for GERD.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client receiving oxygen therapy via a mask. What is an important nursing intervention to prevent pressure ulcers on the client's face?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Placing padding between the mask and skin (C) prevents pressure ulcers by cushioning contact points, reducing friction and pressure. Frequent adjustments (A) disrupt fit. Petroleum jelly (B) compromises seal. Regular assessment (D) detects, not prevents. Padding is proactive, per skin care standards, ensuring mask safety.
Question 4 of 9
A client's wife has been informed by the physician that her spouse has a permanent C2-C3 spinal injury, which has resulted in permanent quadriplegia. The wife states that she does not want the physician or nursing staff to tell the client about his injury. The client is awake, alert, and oriented when he asks his nurse to tell him what has happened. The nurse has conflicting emotions about how to handle the situation and is experiencing:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's conflict between truth-telling and the wife's request is moral distress (B), feeling unable to act ethically. Autonomy (A) is patient rights. Doubt (C) is uncertainty. Courage (D) is acting despite fear. B is correct. Rationale: Moral distress arises from ethical dilemmas, common in nursing when values clash, per ethics frameworks, requiring resolution.
Question 5 of 9
Mr. Gary's wife wanted to see the body before it is removed from the room. Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Let me prepare the body first (B) is most appropriate respects Mrs. Gary's wish while ensuring dignity, per care standards. Denying (A) or discouraging (C) dismisses, time-limiting (D) restricts. B balances support and preparation, making it correct.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following statement best describe guided imagery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Guided imagery diverts attention from pain by imagining a scene (A), per non-pharmacologic pain relief methods. Muscle contraction (B) is progressive relaxation, recalling pain (C) counterproductive, breathing with imagery (D) partial. A best captures its essence distraction via visualization validated by pain management studies, making it correct.
Question 7 of 9
A client with a new diagnosis of osteoporosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.' Increasing intake of calcium-rich foods is essential for managing osteoporosis because calcium is necessary for bone health and density. Adequate calcium intake can help prevent further bone loss and reduce the risk of fractures in individuals with osteoporosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing intake of potassium-rich foods is not necessary for osteoporosis management. Avoiding foods that contain vitamin D is counterproductive since vitamin D is essential for calcium absorption. Increasing intake of high-sodium foods is not recommended as it can contribute to bone loss and negatively impact bone health.
Question 8 of 9
A client has a new diagnosis of gout, and the nurse is providing dietary management education. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease intake of purine-rich foods to manage uric acid levels and symptoms of gout. Purine-rich foods can exacerbate gout symptoms by increasing uric acid production, leading to flare-ups. Therefore, reducing purine intake is essential in the dietary management of gout. Option A is incorrect because increasing purine-rich foods can worsen gout symptoms. Option C is irrelevant as lactose is not directly related to gout. Option D is incorrect as increasing dairy products is not a recommended dietary modification for managing gout.
Question 9 of 9
You partially darken a room and ask the client to look straight ahead. You use a penlight and, approaching from the side you shine the light, it constricts. You remove the light and then shine it on the same pupil again. You also observe the response of the other pupil. You would normally find the other pupil doing which of the following things?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The other pupil constricts consensually when light hits one, a normal reflex. No change, dilation, or mixed response indicates abnormality. Nurses test this for brain function.