ATI LPN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam LPN Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client with a history of nephrotic syndrome. Which food should the client be instructed to avoid?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Canned chicken noodle soup, high in sodium, worsens edema in nephrotic syndrome baked chicken, apples, and broccoli are low-sodium and protein-friendly. Nurses teach sodium restriction, reducing fluid retention, supporting kidney function in this protein-losing condition.
Question 2 of 5
A patient develops red eyes 2 days after an episode of malaria probable cause is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Red eyes post-malaria suggest an ocular complication. Conjunctivitis (choice A) causes redness but isn't typically linked to malaria unless secondary infection occurs. Anterior uveitis (choice B), inflammation of the iris and ciliary body, is a rare but documented malaria sequel, possibly from immune response or parasite-related damage, presenting with redness, pain, and photophobia. Viral keratitis (choice C) affects the cornea and is unrelated to malaria. Endophthalmitis (choice D), a severe intraocular infection, is unlikely without trauma or surgery. B is correct, as anterior uveitis aligns with malaria's systemic inflammatory effects. Nurses should assess eye symptoms, refer to ophthalmology, and manage pain, preventing vision loss in such cases.
Question 3 of 5
One tablet of chlorine is efficient to chlorinate how many litres of water?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chlorine tablets disinfect water by releasing hypochlorous acid to kill pathogens. Standard tablets (e.g., 1 mg chlorine) are designed to treat specific volumes based on concentration needs (typically 0.5-2 mg/L). Choice A (10 L) underestimates common tablet capacity, while C (30 L) and D (40 L) exceed typical single-tablet efficacy without specifying tablet strength. B (20 L) aligns with widely used chlorine tablets (e.g., NaDCC) for household water purification, achieving safe levels per WHO guidelines. Nurses educating communities on water safety must clarify dosage, ensuring effective pathogen control without overdose, making 20 L the correct, practical answer.
Question 4 of 5
What is nurse's primary critical observation when performing an assessment for determining an Apgar score?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Apgar score assesses newborn vitality at 1 and 5 minutes post-birth across five criteria: heart rate, respiration, muscle tone, reflex, color. Heart rate (choice A) is primary; absent (<60 bpm = 0, <100 = 1, >100 = 2) dictates immediate resuscitation, making it the most critical. Respiratory rate (choice B) follows, but weak/absent breathing often ties to heart rate. Meconium (choice C) isn't scored directly, though it flags distress. Moro reflex (choice D) tests tone/reflex, secondary to vitals. A is correct, as heart rate drives initial intervention. Nurses prioritize it, ensuring rapid response to stabilize the infant.
Question 5 of 5
An infant is born precipitously outside the labor room. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Precipitous birth outside controlled settings demands urgent action. Tying/cutting the cord (choice A) is secondary; delay poses no immediate risk unless bleeding occurs. Establishing an airway (choice B) is first, as newborns must breathe independently clearing mucus or stimulating crying ensures oxygenation, critical within the golden minute. Checking the fundus (choice C) assesses maternal bleeding, a later priority. Transport (choice D) follows stabilization. B is correct, per neonatal resuscitation guidelines. Nurses clear airways, warm the infant, and then address cord and maternal needs, ensuring survival.