The nurse is preparing a client with a history of atrial fibrillation for discharge. Which statement by the client indicates that he understood the nurse's teaching regarding warfarin (Coumadin)?

Questions 79

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LPN Fundamentals Exam Questions

Question 1 of 9

The nurse is preparing a client with a history of atrial fibrillation for discharge. Which statement by the client indicates that he understood the nurse's teaching regarding warfarin (Coumadin)?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Reporting bruising indicates understanding of warfarin's anticoagulant effect, as excessive bleeding is a key risk in atrial fibrillation management, requiring physician oversight reflecting proper teaching. Spinach (high vitamin K) counters warfarin, blood tests (INR) are routine, and dosing is daily, not weekly. Nurses reinforce this vigilance, ensuring clients monitor for bleeding to balance clot prevention with safety.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following statement is NOT true about impending death?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Impending death features muscle tone loss (A), sphincter control loss (B), and secretion pooling (D), per terminal physiology body shuts down. Increased sensory perception (C) is untrue senses dull, not sharpen, as consciousness fades. C contradicts decline, making it the correct false statement.

Question 3 of 9

What is the term used for normal respiratory rhythm and depth in a client?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Eupnea describes normal breathing regular rhythm and adequate depth typically 12-20 breaths per minute in adults. Apnea is the absence of breathing, bradypnea is abnormally slow, and tachypnea is rapid. Recognizing eupnea during assessment confirms respiratory health, while deviations signal issues like hypoxia or obstruction. This baseline helps nurses monitor changes, ensuring timely interventions if breathing patterns shift, maintaining oxygenation critical for all body functions.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following statement is TRUE about self-concept?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Self-concept is how a person perceives himself (B), per psychology identity, worth. Not fixed (A, evolves), affects health (C, e.g., esteem), not all (D). B truly defines self-concept's personal view, making it correct.

Question 5 of 9

A client begins to drain small amounts of red blood from a tracheostomy tube 36 hours after a supraglottic laryngectomy. The licensed practical nurse should perform which action?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Red blood from a tracheostomy post-laryngectomy suggests bleeding; notifying the RN (A) is the priority for escalation. Suctioning (B) or moisture (C) doesn't address the cause. Documentation (D) follows. A is correct. Rationale: Bleeding may indicate hemorrhage, requiring RN assessment and intervention, per scope of practice and emergency protocols.

Question 6 of 9

Mr. Gary's HMO limited his provider choices. This is an example of?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: HMO limiting choices is a managed care organization (A) cost/quality control, per definition. Reimbursement (B) payment, literacy (C) understanding, transition (D) moves not choice-specific. A fits Mr. Gary's care structure, making it correct.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action when caring a patient who has a radium implant for cancer of cervix?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Radium implants emit radiation, requiring nurses to wear lead aprons to shield against exposure during care, minimizing health risks. Visitor restriction limits exposure but isn't the primary nursing action. Urine doesn't need lead storage unless radioactive contamination occurs, and IM injection sites depend on practicality, not radiation. Safety protocols prioritize protective gear, ensuring staff and patient well-being during brachytherapy.

Question 8 of 9

A community health nurse is planning a health fair and wants to include illness prevention strategies. Which strategy reflects tertiary prevention?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Tertiary prevention manages existing illness to limit impact, fitting a health fair's broad reach. Referring arthritis clients to physical therapy helps maintain joint function and ease pain post-diagnosis care to reduce disability, a nursing focus for chronic conditions. Teaching bicycle safety is primary, preventing injuries. Screening cholesterol is secondary, detecting risks early. Flu shot education is primary, averting illness onset. Physical therapy referral targets those already affected arthritis affects mobility, and therapy cuts stiffness, per research making it tertiary. This strategy suits community nursing, connecting clients to resources that sustain health despite disease, ensuring the fair addresses all prevention levels while spotlighting rehabilitation's role in long-term wellness.

Question 9 of 9

A client with a traumatic brain injury (TBI) develops altered mental status and decreased oxygen saturation. What is the primary indication for initiating oxygen therapy in this client?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Ensuring adequate oxygen supply to the brain (D) is the primary indication for oxygen therapy in TBI with altered status and low SpO2, preventing hypoxic brain damage. Cerebral edema (A) or BP stabilization (C) involves other interventions. Neurological improvement (B) follows oxygenation. Adequate oxygen supports cerebral metabolism, per neurotrauma care, critical to limit secondary injury.

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