The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who has been diagnosed with an allergy to latex. In determining the client's risk factors, the nurse should question the client about an allergy to which food item?

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Question 1 of 5

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who has been diagnosed with an allergy to latex. In determining the client's risk factors, the nurse should question the client about an allergy to which food item?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bananas. Latex allergy is associated with cross-reactivity to certain fruits like bananas due to similar proteins. Therefore, questioning the client about a banana allergy is crucial to assess the risk of allergic reactions. Eggs (A), milk (B), and yogurt (C) are not typically associated with latex allergies, making them less relevant in this context.

Question 2 of 5

A 52-year-old man with cirrhosis, weight loss, liver mass. Most important initial diagnostic study?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum α-fetoprotein level. In a patient with cirrhosis and liver mass, an elevated α-fetoprotein level suggests hepatocellular carcinoma. This is important for early detection and management. Choice B (Colonoscopy) is not indicated for liver masses. Choice C (Hepatitis C viral RNA) is relevant for hepatitis C diagnosis but not specific for evaluating a liver mass. Choice D (Upper GI endoscopy) is used for assessing upper gastrointestinal issues, not liver masses. Therefore, Serum α-fetoprotein level is the most appropriate initial diagnostic study in this scenario.

Question 3 of 5

A patient with endocarditis on warfarin, rifampin stopped. Best next step?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Rifampin induces warfarin metabolism, reducing its efficacy. 2. Discontinuing rifampin causes a sudden increase in warfarin levels. 3. To avoid bleeding risk, reduce warfarin dosage. Summary: A: Increasing dosage can lead to over-anticoagulation. B: Continuing 15 mg/d without rifampin can cause overdose. D: Stopping warfarin abruptly can lead to thrombotic events.

Question 4 of 5

A 62-year-old woman with fever, night sweats, weight loss, large cell lymphoma. Prognosis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Aggressive, may be cured with chemo. In large cell lymphoma, aggressive treatment with chemotherapy has shown potential for cure. This is supported by studies showing high response rates and long-term survival in patients receiving appropriate chemo regimens. Indolent lymphomas (choice A) are slow-growing and typically do not require aggressive treatment. Aggressive lymphomas with poor chemo response (choice B) have a worse prognosis compared to large cell lymphomas. Responding but relapsing (choice D) indicates a temporary response followed by disease recurrence, which is less favorable than potential cure with chemo.

Question 5 of 5

A 58-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis, microcytic anemia, high ferritin. Anemia?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Anemia of chronic disease. In this case, the patient's high ferritin levels and chronic inflammatory condition (rheumatoid arthritis) are indicative of anemia of chronic disease. This type of anemia is characterized by low iron utilization due to inflammation, leading to a state of functional iron deficiency despite high ferritin levels. Thalassemia (Choice A) typically presents with microcytic anemia but would not have high ferritin levels. Iron deficiency anemia (Choice B) would present with low ferritin levels. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice C) is characterized by ringed sideroblasts on bone marrow biopsy, which is not mentioned in the case.

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