The nurse is conducting allergy skin testing on a client. Which postprocedure interventions are most appropriate?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because recording the site, date, and time of the test is crucial for documentation and tracking purposes. This information helps monitor for any delayed reactions and ensures proper follow-up. Choice B is incorrect as clients should be educated to report any reaction immediately, not just return for inspection. Choice C is incorrect because monitoring the client for an allergic reaction should occur for at least 15-30 minutes, not 1 to 2 hours. Choice D is incorrect as estimating the size of the wheal is not necessary for postprocedure interventions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Choice A (Pelvic ultrasound): - Pelvic ultrasound is the most appropriate initial step for evaluating a 50-year-old woman with abdominal and adnexal fullness to assess for gynecologic issues like ovarian cysts, fibroids, or tumors. - It is non-invasive, cost-effective, and can provide valuable information about the structures in the pelvis. - It helps to visualize the ovaries and uterus, guiding further management decisions based on the findings. Summary of other choices: - Choice B (CA-125 antigen levels): While CA-125 is a tumor marker often elevated in ovarian cancer, it is not specific and can be elevated in other conditions. It is not the initial step in this case. - Choice C (Surgery): Surgery should not be the first step without proper diagnostic evaluation with imaging studies. - Choice D (CT scan of abdomen): CT scan may provide detailed information but is not the initial diagnostic modality for evaluating adnexal full

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: APC. This gene mutation is associated with familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), a condition characterized by hundreds to thousands of colorectal polyps and a high risk of developing colon cancer. FAP is an autosomal dominant disorder, so individuals with a family history of colon cancer are at highest risk for having an APC mutation. MEN1 (choice A) is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1, RET (choice B) with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2, and MSH (choice D) with Lynch syndrome - all of which are not specifically linked to colon cancer in the context of this question.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most important initial step in a 30-year-old woman on propylthiouracil with fever and sore throat is to perform a CBC. This is crucial to assess for potential agranulocytosis, a rare but serious side effect of propylthiouracil leading to severe neutropenia. A CBC will reveal any abnormalities in white blood cell counts, particularly neutrophils, guiding immediate management. Checking serum TSH or T3 levels is not necessary in this acute situation and won't provide immediate actionable information. A chest x-ray is not indicated unless there are specific respiratory symptoms or clinical signs suggesting a need for imaging.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypercalcemia. In lung cancer, paraneoplastic syndromes can occur due to tumor-secreted substances affecting distant organs. Hypercalcemia is commonly associated with lung cancer and can cause confusion. SIADH (B) is more common in small cell lung cancer. Hypoglycemia (C) is not a typical paraneoplastic syndrome in lung cancer. Migratory thrombophlebitis (D) is associated with pancreatic cancer, not lung cancer.