The nurse is conducting a teaching session with a client on their diagnosis of pemphigus. Which statement by the client indicates that the client understands the diagnosis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it accurately states that pemphigus is an autoimmune disease that causes blistering of the skin. This demonstrates an understanding of the underlying cause of the condition. Option A is incorrect as pemphigus presents with blistering, not tiny red vesicles. Option B is incorrect as pemphigus is not caused by a virus. Option D is incorrect as the description provided does not match the characteristic presentation of pemphigus.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is C, anemia of chronic disease. This type of anemia is characterized by low serum iron, low iron-binding capacity, and normocytic, normochromic red blood cells. In chronic inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, the body’s response to inflammation leads to impaired iron metabolism and decreased erythropoiesis. This explains the low iron levels and anemia in this patient. Choices A, B, and D do not fit the clinical picture as occult blood loss, vitamin deficiency, and sideroblastic anemia would present with different laboratory findings and mechanisms of anemia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum α-fetoprotein level. In a patient with cirrhosis and liver mass, an elevated α-fetoprotein level suggests hepatocellular carcinoma. This is important for early detection and management. Choice B (Colonoscopy) is not indicated for liver masses. Choice C (Hepatitis C viral RNA) is relevant for hepatitis C diagnosis but not specific for evaluating a liver mass. Choice D (Upper GI endoscopy) is used for assessing upper gastrointestinal issues, not liver masses. Therefore, Serum α-fetoprotein level is the most appropriate initial diagnostic study in this scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Rifampin induces warfarin metabolism, reducing its efficacy. 2. Discontinuing rifampin causes a sudden increase in warfarin levels. 3. To avoid bleeding risk, reduce warfarin dosage. Summary: A: Increasing dosage can lead to over-anticoagulation. B: Continuing 15 mg/d without rifampin can cause overdose. D: Stopping warfarin abruptly can lead to thrombotic events.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Aggressive, may be cured with chemo. In large cell lymphoma, aggressive treatment with chemotherapy has shown potential for cure. This is supported by studies showing high response rates and long-term survival in patients receiving appropriate chemo regimens. Indolent lymphomas (choice A) are slow-growing and typically do not require aggressive treatment. Aggressive lymphomas with poor chemo response (choice B) have a worse prognosis compared to large cell lymphomas. Responding but relapsing (choice D) indicates a temporary response followed by disease recurrence, which is less favorable than potential cure with chemo.