ATI LPN
ATI Fundamentals LPN Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is completing a health history with an older adult client who reveals smoking one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 50 years. Which illness prevention strategy should the nurse recommend?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For an older adult with a 50-year, pack-a-day smoking history, the nurse prioritizes illness prevention via a smoking cessation program referral primary prevention to halt further damage from a modifiable risk tied to lung cancer, COPD, and heart disease. Quitting slashes these risks studies show even late cessation improves lung function. Screening for lung cancer is secondary, detecting issues, not preventing them, though relevant later. Nutrition or mobility exercises enhance wellness but don't address smoking's root threat 20% of smokers develop COPD. Cessation directly targets the habit, aligning with nursing's preventive ethos, offering practical support like group therapy or nicotine aids. This strategy empowers the client to alter a decades-long risk, maximizing health gains despite age, a cornerstone of tailored care.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is suctioning a client through a tracheostomy tube. During the procedure, the client begins to cough, and the nurse notes the presence of an audible wheeze. The nurse attempts to remove the suction catheter from the client's trachea but is unable to do so. What is the nurse's priority response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A stuck catheter with coughing and wheezing suggests obstruction or bronchospasm; disconnecting the suction source (D) is the priority to relieve pressure and attempt removal. Calling a code (A) or provider (C) delays action. Bronchodilators (B) treat wheezing but not the immediate issue. D is correct. Rationale: Disconnecting stops suction trauma, allowing catheter withdrawal and airway reassessment, a critical first step per emergency airway protocols.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse uses the Glasgow Coma Scale to assess a client with a head injury. Which Glasgow Coma Scale score indicates that the client is in a coma?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 6 (A) indicates coma, defined as ≤8, reflecting minimal responsiveness (eye, verbal, motor). Scores of 9 (B) and 12 (C) suggest moderate injury. 15 (D) is normal. A is correct. Rationale: GCS ≤8 signifies severe brain dysfunction, often requiring intubation, a standard threshold in neurocritical care for coma classification and management.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is teaching a client who underwent a hypophysectomy for hypopituitarism about self-management. Which actions performed by the client could cause complications on the second post-operative day? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Post-hypophysectomy, nose blowing (A) risks CSF leak or meningitis by disrupting the surgical site. Brushing (B) and semi-Fowler's (D) are safe. Bending (C) is risky but less immediate. A is correct. Rationale: Nasal pressure can breach the pituitary fossa repair, a critical complication in early recovery, per post-operative neurosurgery care, unlike benign actions.
Question 5 of 5
A client who experienced a traumatic brain injury has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 6 and is at risk for increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which position should the nurse maintain for this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For a GCS of 6 with ICP risk, semi-Fowler's at 30 degrees (C) optimizes venous drainage, reducing ICP. Supine (A) or prone (B) increases pressure. High Fowler's (D) may destabilize. C is correct. Rationale: 30-degree elevation balances ICP reduction and perfusion, per neurocare standards, critical in severe brain injury.