ATI LPN
Perioperative Nursing Care Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient at risk for atelectasis. The nurse implements a first-line measure to prevent atelectasis development in the patient. What is an example of a first-line measure to minimize atelectasis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Atelectasis, the collapse of alveoli, is prevented primarily by promoting lung expansion and airway clearance, making incentive spirometry a first-line measure. This device encourages deep breathing, increasing lung volume and reopening collapsed alveoli, especially in at-risk patients (e.g., postoperative, immobile). It empowers patients to actively improve ventilation, reducing mucus plugging and enhancing gas exchange. IPPB and PEEP, while effective, are advanced interventions requiring equipment and are used when first-line methods fail IPPB delivers pressure to inflate lungs, and PEEP maintains airway pressure in ventilated patients. Bronchoscopy removes obstructions but is invasive, reserved for severe cases. Incentive spirometry's simplicity, accessibility, and efficacy in stimulating natural breathing mechanics make it the nurse's go-to strategy, supported by evidence for preventing postoperative atelectasis and improving respiratory outcomes.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is evaluating the diagnostic study data of a patient with suspected cystic fibrosis (CF). Which of the following test results is associated with a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cystic fibrosis (CF) diagnosis relies on elevated sweat chloride concentration, typically >60 mmol/L, from a sweat test. CFTR gene mutations impair chloride transport, increasing salt in sweat glands a hallmark of CF alongside thick mucus in organs like lungs and pancreas. Proteinuria indicates kidney issues, unrelated to CF's ion channel defect. Positive phenylketonuria (PKU) reflects a metabolic disorder of phenylalanine, distinct from CF's respiratory-gastrointestinal focus. Lung biopsy malignancy suggests cancer, not CF, which causes bronchiectasis or infection, not tumors. The nurse's evaluation of high sweat chloride confirms CF's pathophysiology chloride retention driving viscous secretions guiding genetic testing (e.g., CFTR mutations) and management (e.g., airway clearance), critical for this lifelong condition's early intervention.
Question 3 of 5
A pediatric nurse practitioner is caring for a child who has just been diagnosed with asthma. The nurse has provided the parents with information that includes potential causative agents for an asthmatic reaction. What potential causative agent should the nurse describe?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pets are a common causative agent for asthma reactions in children, triggering airway inflammation via allergens like dander, saliva, or fur proteins. In sensitized kids, this initiates an IgE-mediated response, causing bronchospasm, mucus production, and dyspnea core asthma features. Lack of sleep may worsen coping but doesn't directly provoke attacks. Psychosocial stress can exacerbate symptoms via neuroimmune pathways but isn't a primary trigger. Bacteria cause infections, potentially worsening asthma, but aren't typical allergens. The nurse's focus on pets backed by allergy studies educates parents to identify and mitigate triggers (e.g., pet-free zones), empowering proactive management in this child's new asthma diagnosis, per pediatric asthma guidelines.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is teaching a patient with asthma about Azmacort, an inhaled corticosteroid. Which adverse effects should the nurse be sure to address in patient teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Teaching about Azmacort (triamcinolone), an inhaled corticosteroid for asthma, must address cough and oral thrush as key adverse effects. Cough can occur from airway irritation by the inhalant, a local reaction manageable with technique adjustment (e.g., spacer use). Oral thrush (candidiasis) results from steroid deposition in the mouth, suppressing local immunity rinsing after use prevents this fungal overgrowth. Dyspnea and increased secretions aren't typical; corticosteroids reduce secretions long-term. Nausea and vomiting are systemic effects, rare with inhaled forms unless overdosed. Fatigue and decreased consciousness suggest severe systemic absorption (e.g., adrenal suppression), uncommon at standard doses. The nurse's focus on these effects demonstrating rinsing and monitoring for white patches ensures safe use, aligning with asthma pharmacotherapy education to maintain efficacy and minimize complications.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is completing a medication history for the surgical patient in preadmission testing. Which of the following medications should the nurse instruct the patient to hold in preparation for surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ibuprofen, an NSAID, should be held before surgery because it inhibits platelet aggregation and prolongs bleeding time, increasing postoperative bleeding risk. This anticoagulant effect, lasting days, heightens hemorrhage potential in surgical wounds. Acetaminophen, a pain reliever without antiplatelet action, poses no bleeding risk and is safe preoperatively. Vitamin C supports wound healing with no surgical contraindications. Miconazole, an antifungal, doesn't affect clotting or surgery. The nurse's instruction to hold ibuprofen typically 7-10 days prior, per physician guidance mitigates bleeding complications, ensuring safer hemostasis during and after the procedure, a key preoperative safety measure.