ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals of Nursing Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of heart failure. This admission is the client's third admission within 90 days. The nurse educates the client with the goal of preventing readmission. Which nursing activity for this client would represent tertiary level prevention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tertiary prevention occurs post-diagnosis, aiming to reduce disability and optimize function, as with this heart failure client. Teaching about a low-sodium diet helps manage symptoms reducing fluid retention, easing heart strain preventing readmissions by enhancing self-care after treatment. Screening or early detection aligns with secondary prevention, identifying issues before symptoms escalate. Promoting health pre-diagnosis is primary prevention, averting illness onset. Here, the nurse targets rehabilitation, addressing an established condition to minimize complications like edema, common in heart failure's chronic cycle. This education empowers the client, aligning with tertiary care's focus on restoring maximal health, critical in nursing to break readmission patterns and support long-term stability.
Question 2 of 5
Before entering the room of a patient receiving treatment for Varicella, you must don personal protective equipment. Organize the correct sequence in how you will don personal protective equipment: Drag and Drop
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When donning personal protective equipment (PPE) for a patient with Varicella, which requires airborne precautions, the correct sequence ensures maximal protection and compliance with infection control standards. The proper order is: (1) Perform hand hygiene (C), (2) Don gown (B), (3) Don N95 mask (D), and (4) Don gloves (A). Hand hygiene comes first to remove contaminants from the hands, reducing the risk of transferring pathogens during PPE application. The gown is donned next to cover the body, followed by the N95 mask to protect against airborne particles, ensuring a tight seal. Gloves are applied last, extending over the gown cuffs to prevent exposure. Varicella, being highly contagious via airborne droplets, necessitates this meticulous sequence to safeguard the nurse. Incorrect ordering, like donning gloves before the gown, could leave gaps in protection or contaminate the gloves. The CSV format requires one correct answer, so C (perform hand hygiene) is selected as the critical first step, foundational to the entire process, aligning with CDC and WHO PPE protocols.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is assisting in planning care for a client scheduled for insertion of a tracheostomy. Which equipment should the nurse plan to have at the bedside when the client returns from surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Post-tracheostomy, the obturator (A) is essential at the bedside to reinsert the tube if dislodged, ensuring airway patency. An oral airway (B) is irrelevant for tracheostomy patients. Epinephrine (C) treats allergic reactions, not routine needs. A larger tracheostomy tube (D) isn't standard emergency equipment. A is correct. Rationale: The obturator facilitates immediate tube replacement, critical in the first 72 hours before a tract forms, preventing airway loss, a priority per surgical nursing standards over other less relevant items.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is providing endotracheal suctioning to a client who is mechanically ventilated, when the client becomes restless and tachycardic. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Restlessness and tachycardia during suctioning suggest hypoxia or distress; discontinuing suctioning and monitoring vital signs (D) is the priority to stabilize the client. Notifying the provider (A) or respiratory (B) delays immediate action. Hyperoxygenating and resuctioning (C) risks worsening hypoxia. D is correct. Rationale: Stopping suctioning halts oxygen depletion, allowing recovery, while monitoring guides further intervention, a standard response per airway management protocols. This prevents complications like arrhythmias or desaturation, prioritizing patient safety over premature escalation or repeated procedures in an unstable state.
Question 5 of 5
Outline the process of speciation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Speciation involves reproductive isolation (B), preventing gene flow between populations, leading to new species. Splitting (A) is the outcome, not the process. Isolation factors (C) are mechanisms, not the core. Gene pool separation (D) is a result. B is correct. Rationale: Reproductive isolation, via geographic, behavioral, or temporal barriers, is the foundational process of speciation, driving genetic divergence over time, per evolutionary biology. This distinguishes it from outcomes or mechanisms, ensuring species evolve independently, as seen in Darwin's finches or allopatric speciation models.