ATI LPN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam LPN Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client admitted with suspected myasthenia gravis. Which finding is usually associated with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Progressive weakness worse at day's end (fatigue) is classic in myasthenia gravis, due to acetylcholine receptor issues diplopia occurs but isn't primary, ascending paralysis fits Guillain-Barré, and rigidity is Parkinson's. Nurses assess this, aiding diagnosis, key for neuromuscular care.
Question 2 of 5
The physician has ordered a culture specimen from a client with a suspected urinary tract infection. The nurse is aware that the specimen should be obtained:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Midstream voiding provides a clean-catch urine specimen for UTI culture, minimizing contamination first voiding risks sediment, vaginal cotton is irrelevant, and catheter ports are for indwelling cases. Nurses instruct this technique, ensuring accurate pathogen identification, critical for effective treatment.
Question 3 of 5
A patient develops red eyes 2 days after an episode of malaria probable cause is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Red eyes post-malaria suggest an ocular complication. Conjunctivitis (choice A) causes redness but isn't typically linked to malaria unless secondary infection occurs. Anterior uveitis (choice B), inflammation of the iris and ciliary body, is a rare but documented malaria sequel, possibly from immune response or parasite-related damage, presenting with redness, pain, and photophobia. Viral keratitis (choice C) affects the cornea and is unrelated to malaria. Endophthalmitis (choice D), a severe intraocular infection, is unlikely without trauma or surgery. B is correct, as anterior uveitis aligns with malaria's systemic inflammatory effects. Nurses should assess eye symptoms, refer to ophthalmology, and manage pain, preventing vision loss in such cases.
Question 4 of 5
One tablet of chlorine is efficient to chlorinate how many litres of water?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chlorine tablets disinfect water by releasing hypochlorous acid to kill pathogens. Standard tablets (e.g., 1 mg chlorine) are designed to treat specific volumes based on concentration needs (typically 0.5-2 mg/L). Choice A (10 L) underestimates common tablet capacity, while C (30 L) and D (40 L) exceed typical single-tablet efficacy without specifying tablet strength. B (20 L) aligns with widely used chlorine tablets (e.g., NaDCC) for household water purification, achieving safe levels per WHO guidelines. Nurses educating communities on water safety must clarify dosage, ensuring effective pathogen control without overdose, making 20 L the correct, practical answer.
Question 5 of 5
What is nurse's primary critical observation when performing an assessment for determining an Apgar score?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Apgar score assesses newborn vitality at 1 and 5 minutes post-birth across five criteria: heart rate, respiration, muscle tone, reflex, color. Heart rate (choice A) is primary; absent (<60 bpm = 0, <100 = 1, >100 = 2) dictates immediate resuscitation, making it the most critical. Respiratory rate (choice B) follows, but weak/absent breathing often ties to heart rate. Meconium (choice C) isn't scored directly, though it flags distress. Moro reflex (choice D) tests tone/reflex, secondary to vitals. A is correct, as heart rate drives initial intervention. Nurses prioritize it, ensuring rapid response to stabilize the infant.