ATI LPN
Questions on the Immune System Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client for signs and symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following would be consistent with this disorder? (Select one that does not apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Painful, deformed small joints. This is consistent with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) as it can cause joint pain and inflammation, leading to joint deformities. A: Discoid rash on skin exposed to sunlight is a characteristic of cutaneous lupus, not systemic lupus. B: Urinalysis positive for casts and protein is more indicative of lupus nephritis, a complication of SLE affecting the kidneys. D: Pain on inspiration is more suggestive of pleurisy, a common symptom in SLE but not specific to the disease.
Question 2 of 5
During a secondary humoral response:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During a secondary humoral response, memory B cells are activated, leading to a faster and more robust production of Ig antibodies than in the primary response. IgG antibodies, in particular, are produced in higher amounts and persist longer than IgM antibodies. This is because memory B cells are already primed to quickly differentiate into plasma cells upon re-exposure to the same antigen, resulting in a more rapid and efficient immune response. Therefore, choice D is correct. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the characteristics of a secondary humoral response.
Question 3 of 5
A client arrives at the health care clinic and tells the nurse that she was just bitten by a tick and would like to be tested for Lyme disease. The client tells the nurse that she removed the tick and flushed it down the toilet. Which actions are most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inform the client to plan to have a blood test 4 to 6 weeks after a bite to detect the presence of the disease. Rationale: 1. Lyme disease testing is most accurate 4-6 weeks post-bite due to the time required for antibodies to develop. 2. Testing too early may result in false negatives. 3. Waiting allows for accurate detection and timely treatment if needed. Summary of Other Choices: A: Incorrect. Arthralgia is just one symptom; testing is needed for accurate diagnosis. C: Incorrect. While prevention is important, this does not address the immediate need for testing. D: Incorrect. Antibiotics should not be started without proper diagnosis to avoid unnecessary medication.
Question 4 of 5
Amikacin is prescribed for a client with a bacterial infection. The nurse instructs the client to contact the primary health care provider (PHCP) immediately if which occurs?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hearing loss. Amikacin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, is known to cause ototoxicity, which can manifest as hearing loss. The client should contact the PHCP immediately if hearing loss occurs as it may be a sign of irreversible damage. Nausea (A), lethargy (B), and muscle aches (D) are common side effects of Amikacin but are not urgent or indicative of a serious adverse reaction requiring immediate medical attention.
Question 5 of 5
A 25-year-old woman with prolonged bleeding post-dental extraction, family history, prolonged PTT, bleeding time 12 min. Best way to control bleeding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Desmopressin (DDAVP). This patient likely has von Willebrand disease, a common bleeding disorder. Desmopressin releases von Willebrand factor and factor VIII from endothelial cells, aiding in hemostasis. Factor VIII concentrate (A) is used for hemophilia A, not von Willebrand disease. Fresh frozen plasma (B) contains various clotting factors but is not specific for von Willebrand disease. Whole blood transfusion (D) is not necessary in this case and does not address the underlying issue.