ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
The healthcare provider prescribes naproxen (Naprosyn) 500 mg PO twice a day for a client with osteoarthritis. During a follow-up visit one month later, the client tells the nurse, 'The pills don't seem to be working. They are not helping the pain at all.' Which factor should influence the nurse's response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: NSAID response is variable - Different individuals respond differently to NSAIDs like naproxen due to genetic and physiological differences. Step 2: Trying another NSAID may be more effective - If the current NSAID is not effective, switching to a different one with a different mechanism of action may provide better pain relief. Step 3: Individualized approach - Tailoring the treatment to the individual's response is key in managing osteoarthritis pain effectively. Summary: Choice D is correct as it acknowledges the variability in NSAID response and suggests trying another NSAID if the current one is ineffective. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the variable response to NSAIDs and do not provide a solution to address the lack of pain relief.
Question 2 of 9
Which assessment finding indicates a client's readiness to leave the nursing unit for a bronchoscopy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Option C, on-call sedation administered, is the correct answer because sedation is essential for bronchoscopy to ensure the client is comfortable and cooperative during the procedure. Sedation helps reduce anxiety and discomfort, making the procedure more tolerable. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly indicate readiness for the procedure. Denying allergies to contrast media (A) is important but not specific to bronchoscopy readiness. Skin prep completion (B) is part of the pre-procedure preparation but does not confirm readiness. Oxygen administration (D) is a routine care measure and does not indicate readiness for bronchoscopy.
Question 3 of 9
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because using a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen at a low flow rate is the safest intervention for a client with COPD. High flow rates can suppress the client's respiratory drive, leading to hypoventilation. Choice A is incorrect because increasing oxygen flow rate without assessing the client's oxygen saturation can be harmful. Choice B is incorrect as deep breathing and coughing can increase oxygen demand and worsen respiratory distress. Choice D is incorrect because oxygen should not be removed during eating or drinking, as it is essential for tissue oxygenation.
Question 4 of 9
A healthcare professional is interested in studying the incidence of infant death in a particular city and wants to compare that city's rate to the state's rate. What state resource is most likely to provide this information?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bureau of Vital Statistics. The Bureau of Vital Statistics is responsible for maintaining records on births, deaths, and other vital events in a particular region. Therefore, it is the most likely state resource to provide information on infant death rates. Disease registry (A) typically focuses on specific diseases rather than overall mortality rates. Department of Health (B) may have some data but may not specifically focus on vital statistics. Census data (D) provides population demographics but does not specifically track infant death rates.
Question 5 of 9
A 60-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital with the complaint of right knee pain for the past week. His right knee and calf are warm and edematous. He has a history of diabetes and arthritis. Which neurological assessment action should the nurse perform for this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee. This is the appropriate action because the client presents with warm, edematous right knee and calf, indicating a potential vascular issue like deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Assessing pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee helps evaluate circulation and nerve function, crucial in identifying complications of DVT. Glasgow Coma Scale (A) is used to assess consciousness, not relevant in this case. Assessing proximal pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis (C) may not provide accurate information about circulation distal to the knee. Evaluating the optic nerve (D) using an ophthalmoscope is unrelated to the client's presenting symptoms and medical history.
Question 6 of 9
A client in labor states, 'I think my water just broke!' The nurse notes that the umbilical cord is on the perineum. What action should the nurse perform first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Place the client in Trendelenburg. This position helps alleviate pressure on the umbilical cord, preventing compression and improving blood flow to the fetus. It is crucial to prioritize this action to prevent fetal distress or compromise. Administering oxygen (A) is important, but not the initial priority. Notifying the operating room team (B) may be necessary but is not the immediate action. Administering a fluid bolus (D) is not indicated in this situation. Placing the client in Trendelenburg is the most appropriate and urgent action to ensure the safety and well-being of the fetus.
Question 7 of 9
A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder refuses to get out of bed, eat, or participate in group therapy. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because sitting with the client and offering support without demanding participation is crucial in building trust and rapport. This approach respects the client's autonomy and allows them to feel supported without pressure. It also creates a safe space for the client to open up when they are ready. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: Offering high-calorie snacks and frequent small meals does not address the core issue of the client's refusal to participate in therapy. B: Asking the client why they are not participating in therapy may come off as confrontational and could further discourage them from opening up. D: Encouraging the client to discuss their feelings of hopelessness may be overwhelming for them at this stage and could lead to resistance.
Question 8 of 9
A client is admitted with suspected meningitis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Seizures. Seizures in a patient with suspected meningitis indicate increased intracranial pressure, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention to prevent brain damage or herniation. Headache (A), fever (B), and nuchal rigidity (C) are common symptoms of meningitis but do not pose an immediate threat to life like seizures do. Addressing the seizures first is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the patient's safety.
Question 9 of 9
Which client's laboratory value requires immediate intervention by a nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with an absolute neutrophil count < 500 is at high risk for serious infections due to severe neutropenia. Neutrophils are crucial for fighting infections, and a low count puts the client at immediate risk. Therefore, intervention is required to prevent life-threatening complications. Choice A: A hemoglobin of 7 grams in a client with GI bleeding receiving a blood transfusion indicates anemia, but it does not require immediate intervention unless the client is symptomatic. Choice B: A fasting glucose of 190 mg/dl in a client with pancreatitis is elevated but does not require immediate intervention unless the client is symptomatic or experiencing complications. Choice C: A bilirubin level 4 times the normal value in a jaundiced client with hepatitis is concerning but does not require immediate intervention unless there are signs of severe liver dysfunction or complications.