ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
The healthcare provider is planning care for a non-potty-trained child with nephrotic syndrome. Which intervention provides the best means of determining fluid retention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weigh the child daily. Daily weight monitoring is the most accurate way to determine fluid retention in a child with nephrotic syndrome as it provides real-time data on fluid status. Weight gain is a key indicator of fluid retention in these patients. Observing lower extremities for pitting edema (B) is subjective and may not accurately reflect fluid status. Measuring abdominal girth weekly (C) may not provide timely information on fluid retention. Weighing wet diapers (D) does not give a comprehensive picture of total fluid retention and may not be as accurate as daily weight monitoring.
Question 2 of 5
A client from a nursing home is admitted with urinary sepsis and has a single-lumen, peripherally-inserted central catheter (PICC). Four medications are prescribed for 9:00 a.m. and the nurse is running behind schedule. Which medication should the nurse administer first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) in 100 ml D5W, IV over 30 minutes q8 hours. In a patient with urinary sepsis, timely administration of antibiotics is crucial to prevent further complications. Piperacillin/tazobactam is a broad-spectrum antibiotic effective against a wide range of bacteria commonly involved in sepsis. Administering it first ensures prompt initiation of treatment. Other choices (B) Vancomycin, (C) Pantoprazole, and (D) Enoxaparin are important medications but are not as time-sensitive in this scenario. Vancomycin and Enoxaparin have longer administration times, and Pantoprazole is a maintenance medication that is not urgent in the acute management of sepsis.
Question 3 of 5
What action should the healthcare provider take to reduce the risk of vesicant extravasation in a client receiving intravenous chemotherapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monitor the client's intravenous site hourly during the treatment. This is crucial to reduce the risk of vesicant extravasation, which can cause tissue damage if the chemotherapy leaks into the surrounding tissues. By monitoring the IV site hourly, the healthcare provider can detect any signs of infiltration or extravasation early and take necessary actions to prevent further harm. A: Administering an antiemetic before starting chemotherapy is unrelated to preventing vesicant extravasation. B: Instructing the client to drink plenty of fluids does not directly address the risk of vesicant extravasation. C: Keeping the head of the bed elevated is not specific to preventing vesicant extravasation and may not effectively reduce the risk.
Question 4 of 5
An elderly male client reports to the clinic nurse that he is experiencing increasing nocturia with difficulty initiating his urine stream. He reports a weak urine flow and frequent dribbling after voiding. Which nursing action should be implemented?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Encourage the client to schedule a digital rectal exam. This option is correct because the client's symptoms of nocturia, weak urine flow, and difficulty initiating urine stream suggest potential prostate issues, such as benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). A digital rectal exam can help assess the size and condition of the prostate gland. It is an essential step in diagnosing BPH or other prostate conditions. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity is not the priority in this case, as the client's symptoms are more indicative of a prostate issue rather than a urinary tract infection. C: Maintaining a voiding diary may provide information on the frequency and volume of urine output, but it does not address the underlying cause of the client's symptoms. D: Instructing the client in cleansing techniques for the glans penis is not relevant to the reported symptoms and does not address the potential prostate issue.
Question 5 of 5
During an admission physical assessment, the nurse is examining a newborn who is small for gestational age (SGA). Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the pediatric healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Widened, tense, bulging fontanel. This finding is concerning as it can indicate increased intracranial pressure, potentially leading to serious complications in a newborn. The fontanel should be flat or slightly depressed, not bulging. Immediate reporting is necessary for timely intervention. Incorrect choices: A: Heel stick glucose of 65 mg/dL is slightly low but not an immediate concern; can be managed with feeding. B: Head circumference of 35 cm is within the normal range for a newborn and does not require immediate action. D: High-pitched shrill cry can be a sign of distress but not as urgent as a bulging fontanel in this context.