ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019 Questions
Question 1 of 5
The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who is taking warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the healthcare provider monitor closely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting clotting factors. Monitoring PT is essential to ensure the patient's blood is clotting within the desired range to prevent both bleeding and clotting events. Platelet count (A) assesses the quantity of platelets, not the clotting function. Hemoglobin level (C) evaluates red blood cell count and oxygen-carrying capacity. White blood cell count (D) assesses immune function and infection risk, not clotting ability. PT is directly related to warfarin's mechanism of action, making it the most crucial parameter to monitor.
Question 2 of 5
A client with Parkinson's disease is being cared for by a nurse. Which intervention should be included to address the client's bradykinesia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage daily walking. Bradykinesia in Parkinson's disease refers to slowness of movement. Walking helps improve coordination, balance, and overall mobility in clients with Parkinson's. It promotes muscle strength and flexibility, counteracting the effects of bradykinesia. Walking also stimulates dopamine release, which is reduced in Parkinson's. Choice B is incorrect as thickened liquids are for dysphagia, not bradykinesia. Choice C is incorrect as meal frequency does not directly address bradykinesia. Choice D is incorrect as adaptive utensils help with fine motor skills, not slowness of movement.
Question 3 of 5
The client with bacterial pneumonia is receiving intravenous antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the treatment is effective?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clear lung sounds. Clear lung sounds indicate effective treatment as they suggest improved air exchange and resolution of lung congestion caused by pneumonia. Increased respiratory rate (A) and decreased oxygen saturation (B) are signs of respiratory distress and ineffective treatment. Elevated white blood cell count (D) indicates ongoing infection, not effectiveness of treatment. Therefore, clear lung sounds are the best indicator of treatment effectiveness in bacterial pneumonia.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperglycemia. Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic medication known to cause metabolic side effects such as hyperglycemia. The nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of high blood sugar levels, such as increased thirst, frequent urination, and fatigue. Hypertension (choice A) is not a common side effect of risperidone. Weight loss (choice B) is less likely as risperidone is associated with weight gain. Hyperactivity (choice C) is not a typical side effect of risperidone. Therefore, monitoring for hyperglycemia is essential in clients taking risperidone.
Question 5 of 5
A client with chronic pain is prescribed a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Applying the fentanyl patch to a clean, dry, and hairless area of the skin ensures proper absorption and effectiveness. Moisture, oils, and hair can interfere with absorption. Option B is incorrect as heating pads can increase drug absorption and lead to overdose. Option C is incorrect because fentanyl patches are usually changed every 72 hours, not daily. Option D is incorrect because rotating application sites helps prevent skin irritation and tolerance development.