ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Crepitus around the insertion site. Crepitus suggests subcutaneous emphysema, which can indicate a pneumothorax or air leak. Immediate intervention is needed to prevent further complications. A: Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is expected and indicates a functioning chest tube system. B: Drainage of 75 ml in the first hour post-insertion is within the normal range and should be monitored. D: Fluctuation of the water level in the water seal chamber with respiration is a normal finding indicating the chest tube is functioning correctly.
Question 2 of 9
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: No bruit or thrill over the AV fistula. A bruit and thrill indicate proper blood flow through the AV fistula, essential for successful hemodialysis. Absence of these sounds can indicate AV fistula malfunction, leading to inadequate dialysis. Redness, pain, and swelling are common complications of AV fistula placement but do not require immediate reporting unless severe or accompanied by other symptoms like fever or pus drainage. Reporting the absence of a bruit or thrill promptly allows for timely intervention to prevent complications and ensure effective dialysis.
Question 3 of 9
The mother of a 9-month-old who was diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) yesterday calls the clinic to inquire if it will be all right to take her infant to the first birthday party of a friend's child the following day. What response should the nurse provide this mother?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Do not expose other children. RSV is very contagious even without direct oral contact. Rationale: RSV is highly contagious and can spread through respiratory droplets, making it important to prevent exposing other children to the virus. Even without direct oral contact, the virus can be transmitted. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid putting other children at risk of contracting RSV. Summary of other choices: A: Wearing a mask may not be practical for an infant and may not provide sufficient protection against RSV transmission. B: RSV can still be contagious for several days after symptoms appear, so the child may still be able to spread the virus. C: While avoiding infants under 6 months can be a good precaution, all children should be protected from exposure to RSV due to its high contagiousness.
Question 4 of 9
The client has acute pancreatitis. Which nursing intervention is the highest priority?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer pain medication as prescribed. This is the highest priority because acute pancreatitis is a painful condition, and managing pain is crucial for the client's comfort and well-being. Pain control also helps reduce stress on the pancreas and can aid in preventing complications. Choice B is incorrect because while monitoring serum amylase and lipase levels is important in diagnosing pancreatitis and assessing response to treatment, it is not the highest priority intervention. Choice C is incorrect as encouraging oral intake of clear liquids may exacerbate pancreatitis symptoms and lead to further complications. Choice D is incorrect as assessing bowel sounds, while important for monitoring gastrointestinal function, is not the highest priority in the acute management of pancreatitis.
Question 5 of 9
Following a CVA, the nurse assesses that a client developed dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen. Which prescription for the client should the nurse question?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy. Dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a distended abdomen indicate a potential risk for aspiration or impaired gastrointestinal motility. Continuous tube feeding may worsen these conditions. The nurse should question this prescription to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are not immediate concerns for dysphagia and bowel issues. Total parenteral nutrition, nasogastric tube connected to suction, and metoclopramide can be appropriate interventions for nutritional support and bowel motility in this scenario.
Question 6 of 9
A client is admitted with suspected meningitis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Seizures. Seizures in a patient with suspected meningitis indicate increased intracranial pressure, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention to prevent brain damage or herniation. Headache (A), fever (B), and nuchal rigidity (C) are common symptoms of meningitis but do not pose an immediate threat to life like seizures do. Addressing the seizures first is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the patient's safety.
Question 7 of 9
A healthcare professional is interested in studying the incidence of infant death in a particular city and wants to compare that city's rate to the state's rate. What state resource is most likely to provide this information?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bureau of Vital Statistics. The Bureau of Vital Statistics is responsible for maintaining records on births, deaths, and other vital events in a particular region. Therefore, it is the most likely state resource to provide information on infant death rates. Disease registry (A) typically focuses on specific diseases rather than overall mortality rates. Department of Health (B) may have some data but may not specifically focus on vital statistics. Census data (D) provides population demographics but does not specifically track infant death rates.
Question 8 of 9
What dietary advice should the nurse provide to help reduce the occurrence of hot flashes in a post-menopausal client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit caffeine and alcohol consumption. Hot flashes can be triggered by stimulants like caffeine and alcohol. Limiting intake can help reduce their occurrence. Increasing spicy foods (A) can actually worsen hot flashes. High-protein diets (C) and consuming more dairy products (D) do not have a direct impact on hot flashes.
Question 9 of 9
A client with schizophrenia is prescribed haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tardive dyskinesia. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic known to cause extrapyramidal side effects, including tardive dyskinesia, which is characterized by involuntary repetitive movements of the face and body. This side effect is a serious concern due to its potential to be irreversible. Monitoring for tardive dyskinesia is crucial in clients taking haloperidol to detect and manage symptoms promptly. Explanation for incorrect choices: B: Orthostatic hypotension - This side effect is more commonly associated with other antipsychotic medications, particularly second-generation ones. C: Photosensitivity - Haloperidol does not typically cause photosensitivity as a side effect. D: Hyperglycemia - While some antipsychotic medications may lead to metabolic side effects like hyperglycemia, haloperidol is not typically associated with this specific side effect.