ATI LPN
NCLEX Questions on Gastrointestinal System Questions
Question 1 of 5
The finger-like projections of the small intestine that give the mucosa a velvety appearance and greatly increase the surface area are called
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: villi. Villi are finger-like projections in the small intestine that greatly increase the surface area for nutrient absorption. They have microvilli on their surface, further enhancing absorption efficiency. Circular folds (A) are also known as plicae circulares and increase surface area for absorption, but they are not finger-like projections. Cilia (B) are hair-like structures involved in movement and are not found in the small intestine. Haustra (C) are pouches in the large intestine that aid in the mixing and propulsion of feces, not in the small intestine's absorption process.
Question 2 of 5
The primary function of the stomach is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the stomach's primary function is to store food, churn it to mix it with digestive enzymes, and begin the process of digestion. This is essential for breaking down food into smaller particles to facilitate nutrient absorption in the small intestine. Choice A is incorrect as the main organ for fat digestion is the small intestine. Choice C is incorrect as nutrient absorption primarily occurs in the small intestine. Choice D is incorrect as packaging feces is the role of the large intestine, not the stomach.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following factors registers a score of 3 in the Well's Score for diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A heart rate >100 beats/minute. In the Well's Score for PE, a heart rate >100 indicates a score of 3, reflecting the increased risk of PE. This is because tachycardia can be a sign of the body compensating for decreased oxygen levels due to a PE. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not register a score of 3 in the Well's Score. Immobilization or surgery within 6 weeks and presence of cancer each score 1 point, while symptoms of haemoptysis score 1 point as well. These factors are important in the overall assessment of PE risk but do not specifically correspond to a score of 3 in the Well's Score system.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following statements relating to asthma is most accurate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most accurate statement is C: "Asthma is associated with breathlessness particularly on lying flat." This is correct because asthma symptoms often worsen when lying flat due to increased pressure on the chest and airways. Option A is incorrect because a long-acting beta2-agonist is not recommended for mild intermittent asthma as it is a step-up therapy for persistent asthma. Option B is incorrect as chronic productive cough is more commonly associated with conditions like chronic bronchitis. Option D is incorrect because a reversibility of <10% in FEV1 is not consistent with a diagnosis of asthma, as asthma typically shows significant reversibility in lung function tests.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following would confirm the diagnosis of diabetes in a patient with symptoms of hyperglycaemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Fasting plasma glucose >=7.0 mmol/l is a diagnostic criteria for diabetes. 2. It indicates sustained hyperglycaemia without food intake influencing the result. 3. Choice B tests glucose response to a glucose challenge and may not reflect fasting levels. 4. HbA1c measures average glucose levels over 2-3 months, not immediate status. 5. Choice D lacks specificity as random glucose levels can fluctuate.