ATI LPN
Integumentary System Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The evening nurse reviews the nursing documentation in the male client's chart and notes that the day nurse has documented that the client has a stage II pressure ulcer in the sacral area. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on assessment of the client's sacral area?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Partial-thickness skin loss of the dermis. This aligns with the definition of a stage II pressure ulcer, which involves partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and/or dermis. This stage typically presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B (Full-thickness skin loss) is incorrect as it corresponds to a stage III pressure ulcer where there is full-thickness tissue loss. Choice C (Blistering without skin loss) is incorrect as it describes a stage II pressure injury, not a pressure ulcer. Choice D (Intact skin with redness) is incorrect as it signifies a stage I pressure ulcer, where there is non-blanchable erythema of intact skin. Therefore, the nurse would expect to see partial-thickness skin loss of the dermis in the sacral area of the client with a stage II pressure ulcer.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse manager is planning the clinical assignments for the day. Which staff members can be assigned to care for a client with herpes zoster?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a nurse who never had German Measles is not at risk of contracting herpes zoster from the client. Herpes zoster is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, which causes chickenpox. If a person has never had chickenpox, they are at risk of getting it from a client with herpes zoster. Roseola and mumps are not related to herpes zoster, so choices C and D are incorrect.
Question 3 of 5
What important safety measure regarding the use of insect repellents does the nurse teach a parenting group?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Applying repellents to clothing reduces skin exposure. 2. It minimizes direct contact with skin, preventing potential irritation. 3. It also decreases absorption risks. 4. This method is safer, especially for children with sensitive skin. Summary of incorrect choices: B: DEET is not the only effective repellent; there are safe alternatives. C: Oil of lemon eucalyptus is not recommended for babies due to potential skin sensitivity. D: Washing off after 2 hours may reduce efficacy; reapplication is necessary for continued protection.
Question 4 of 5
The faculty member explains fungal skin diseases to a group of students. Which are the common types of this disorder?(Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tinea manus. Tinea manus refers to fungal infections on the hands. The other choices, A, B, and C, refer to fungal infections on the scalp, body, and groin respectively. Therefore, D is the correct answer as it pertains to fungal skin diseases affecting the hands specifically.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is using the antimicrobial binding dressing Actisorb Silver 222 for a stage 3 pressure ulcer on the left hip area. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Avoid cutting the dressing when applying it to the wound. Actisorb Silver 222 dressing should not be cut as it may disrupt its antimicrobial properties, affecting its effectiveness in managing the wound. Cutting the dressing could also lead to uneven coverage of the wound, potentially causing complications. Performing sterile dressing changes twice a day (choice A) may not be necessary unless specified by the healthcare provider. Premedicating the client with a narcotic analgesic (choice C) is not directly related to the dressing application and should be determined based on the client's pain level. Using tape to hold the secondary dressing in place (choice D) is not recommended as it may cause skin irritation or damage.