ATI LPN
NCLEX Neurology Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The condition of hyperopia is usually caused by which anomaly of the eye?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperopia (farsightedness) results from a shorter eyeball, focusing light behind the retina. TMP13 p. 640
Question 2 of 5
A patient is being admitted with a possible stroke. Which information from the assessment indicates that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before giving the prescribed aspirin?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A sudden onset headache is typical of a subarachnoid hemorrhage, and aspirin is contraindicated. Atrial fibrillation, dysphasia, and transient ischemic attack are not contraindications to aspirin use.
Question 3 of 5
A patient who has a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA) has an order for aspirin 160 mg daily. When the nurse is administering medications, the patient says, 'I don’t need the aspirin today. I don’t have a fever.' Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Aspirin is ordered to prevent stroke in patients who have experienced TIAs. Documentation of the patient's refusal to take the medication is an inadequate response by the nurse. There is no need to clarify the order with the health care provider. The aspirin is not ordered to prevent aches and pains.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following interventions should you perform for a patient admitted with an order for seizure precautions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Seizure precautions aim to ensure safety and treatment readiness. Obtaining IV access allows for rapid administration of anticonvulsants if needed. Keeping lights on or raising the bed increases risk, and tongue blades are outdated and unsafe.
Question 5 of 5
A 62-year-old male presents with headache, nausea, and vomiting. These symptoms occurred a few hours after returning from the grocery store. He has a history of hypertension treated with lisinopril, and type 2 diabetes mellitus treated with metformin. His temperature is 100.2°F (38°C), blood pressure 176/102 mmHg, pulse is 96/min, and respirations are 19/min. On physical exam, there is dysarthia, left-sided weakness and sensory loss. Noncontrast head CT is shown. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this patient's clinical presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acute headache, nausea, vomiting, and focal deficits (dysarthria, left-sided weakness/sensory loss) with hypertension suggest a hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage, a common stroke etiology. Amyloid angiopathy typically affects the elderly with lobar hemorrhages, aneurysms cause subarachnoid hemorrhage, and malformations present variably.