ATI LPN
Hematologic System Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The complement:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the complement system enhances phagocytosis by opsonization, making it easier for phagocytes to engulf and destroy pathogens. Option A is incorrect as the complement system is not part of adaptive immunity. Option B is incorrect as antibodies are part of the humoral immune response, not the complement system. Option D is incorrect as the complement system consists of proteins, not enzymes.
Question 2 of 5
Ketoconazole is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of candidiasis. Which interventions should the nurse include when administering this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Monitor liver function studies. Rationale: 1. Ketoconazole is known to have hepatotoxic side effects. 2. Monitoring liver function studies is essential to detect any signs of liver damage early. 3. Regular monitoring allows for timely intervention if hepatic toxicity occurs. Other Choices: A: Restricting fluid intake is not necessary for ketoconazole administration. C: Administering ketoconazole with an antacid may reduce its absorption. D: Avoiding sun exposure is not directly related to ketoconazole administration for candidiasis.
Question 3 of 5
A 64-year-old smoker with cough, shortness of breath, facial plethora, JVD, supraclavicular node. Most likely cause?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lung cancer. The symptoms described, including cough, shortness of breath, facial plethora, JVD, supraclavicular node, are classic signs of advanced lung cancer. Lung cancer commonly presents with respiratory symptoms due to the obstruction of airways and spread to nearby structures. Long-standing hypertension (A) typically presents with symptoms related to high blood pressure, not respiratory symptoms. Gastric carcinoma (B) may present with gastrointestinal symptoms rather than respiratory symptoms. Emphysema (C) is a lung condition associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and smoking but does not typically present with facial plethora, JVD, or supraclavicular node enlargement.
Question 4 of 5
A 20-year-old man with asymptomatic scrotal mass. Most appropriate first step?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Palpation and transillumination. This is the most appropriate first step because it allows for a physical examination of the scrotal mass to determine its characteristics and location. Palpation can help assess the size, shape, consistency, and tenderness of the mass. Transillumination can differentiate between fluid-filled (e.g., hydrocele) and solid masses (e.g., testicular tumor). This initial assessment helps guide further diagnostic workup and management decisions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because performing tumor markers (HCG and α-fetoprotein) or scrotal ultrasonography or referring for orchiectomy without a proper initial physical examination would be premature and may lead to unnecessary interventions or delays in appropriate management.
Question 5 of 5
A 64-year-old man with 5-cm thigh mass, fixed to muscle. Most appropriate management?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Refer for surgical biopsy. In this case, a 5-cm thigh mass that is fixed to muscle in a 64-year-old man raises concern for a potential malignant tumor. Surgical biopsy is the most appropriate next step to establish a definitive diagnosis and determine the nature of the mass. This will help guide further management, whether it requires surgical excision, chemotherapy, or other treatments. Reexamining in 3 months (choice A) may delay diagnosis and treatment if the mass is indeed malignant. A bone scan (choice B) is not the initial investigation for a soft tissue mass. Treating with cephalexin (choice C) is not indicated as this mass is likely not an infectious process.