The client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the correct laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, especially with heparin. A prolonged aPTT indicates effective anticoagulation, reducing the risk of further clot formation in the client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The other options, such as complete blood count (CBC), serum electrolytes, and liver function tests, do not directly assess the therapeutic effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by promoting the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium. This loss of potassium can lead to hypokalemia, which can be a potential side effect of furosemide administration. Hypokalemia can result in cardiac dysrhythmias and other complications, especially in clients with heart failure who may already have compromised cardiac function. Therefore, monitoring for signs of hypokalemia, such as muscle weakness, cardiac irregularities, and fatigue, is essential when administering furosemide. Choice A, hypertension, is incorrect because furosemide is actually used to treat hypertension by reducing excess fluid in the body. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Choice D, hypoglycemia, is unrelated to the mechanism of action of furosemide and is not a common side effect associated with its administration.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Clients taking warfarin (Coumadin) should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K to keep the medication's effectiveness stable. Foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy greens, can interfere with the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to avoid these foods to ensure the therapeutic effects of warfarin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing dairy products, limiting fiber intake, or increasing protein intake do not directly impact the effectiveness of warfarin therapy and are not necessary dietary modifications for clients on this medication.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Increased shortness of breath with exertion is a concerning symptom in a client with chronic stable angina as it may indicate inadequate oxygen supply to the heart muscle, suggesting a worsening condition. This could be a sign of reduced blood flow to the heart, leading to increased work for the heart during exertion, resulting in increased shortness of breath. Choice B, improved tolerance to activity, is incorrect as it would indicate a positive response to treatment. Choice C, decreased frequency of chest pain, is incorrect as it would also suggest an improvement in the client's condition. Choice D, stable blood pressure readings, are not indicative of a worsening condition in chronic stable angina.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for yellow or blurred vision.' When a client is taking digoxin, it is crucial to monitor for signs of toxicity, such as yellow or blurred vision, as these can indicate an adverse reaction. Reporting these visual disturbances promptly to the healthcare provider is important for further evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking digoxin with meals, avoiding dairy products, or increasing potassium-rich foods are not specific instructions related to monitoring for adverse effects of digoxin therapy.