ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019 Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client with bacterial pneumonia is receiving intravenous antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the treatment is effective?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clear lung sounds. Clear lung sounds indicate effective treatment as they suggest improved air exchange and resolution of lung congestion caused by pneumonia. Increased respiratory rate (A) and decreased oxygen saturation (B) are signs of respiratory distress and ineffective treatment. Elevated white blood cell count (D) indicates ongoing infection, not effectiveness of treatment. Therefore, clear lung sounds are the best indicator of treatment effectiveness in bacterial pneumonia.
Question 2 of 5
A client with chronic pain is prescribed a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Applying the fentanyl patch to a clean, dry, and hairless area of the skin ensures proper absorption and effectiveness. Moisture, oils, and hair can interfere with absorption. Option B is incorrect as heating pads can increase drug absorption and lead to overdose. Option C is incorrect because fentanyl patches are usually changed every 72 hours, not daily. Option D is incorrect because rotating application sites helps prevent skin irritation and tolerance development.
Question 3 of 5
A client with hypertension is receiving dietary education from a nurse. Which recommendation should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit your sodium intake to less than 2 grams per day. Sodium restriction is crucial in managing hypertension as it helps reduce blood pressure. Excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid retention and increased blood volume, worsening hypertension. This recommendation aligns with evidence-based guidelines for hypertension management. Incorrect choices: A: Increasing saturated fat intake is not recommended for hypertension, as it can lead to cardiovascular issues. C: Avoiding foods high in potassium is not advised, as potassium helps regulate blood pressure. D: Consuming alcoholic beverages daily can raise blood pressure and interfere with hypertension management.
Question 4 of 5
A client who has just started taking levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet) for Parkinson's disease reports experiencing nausea. What should the nurse recommend to the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Consume a low-protein snack with the medication. This is because levodopa absorption is improved when taken with a low-protein snack, reducing the risk of nausea. Choice A is incorrect as taking the medication on an empty stomach can exacerbate nausea. Choice C is incorrect as increasing dairy intake can interfere with levodopa absorption. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping the medication can worsen Parkinson's symptoms.
Question 5 of 5
A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed erythropoietin (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improved hemoglobin levels. Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. This is the desired outcome in a client with chronic renal failure, as it helps alleviate anemia. Choice A is incorrect because increased urine output is not a direct indicator of erythropoietin effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect as erythropoietin does not directly impact blood pressure. Choice D is incorrect because stable potassium levels are not a primary outcome of erythropoietin therapy in chronic renal failure.