ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals of Nursing Test Questions
Question 1 of 9
The client place on NPO for preparation of the blood test. Adreno-cortical response is activated and which of the following below is an expected response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The adreno-cortical response, triggered by stress (NPO for a test), releases cortisol and aldosterone. Decreased urine output (B) occurs as aldosterone retains sodium and water, raising blood volume to counter stress. Low BP (A) contradicts this; pressure rises. Warm, flushed, dry skin (C) aligns with sympathetic, not adreno-cortical effects. Low sodium (D) opposes aldosterone's action. Reduced urine output reflects the body's fluid conservation under stress, matching adreno-cortical physiology and making B correct.
Question 2 of 9
You are working with a client who has cancer and is undergoing treatment. The client complains of a loss of appetite. You will most need to make certain that your client eats which one of the following foods?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: For a cancer client with poor appetite, protein is most critical to maintain muscle mass and support healing during treatment. Fruits and vegetables offer vitamins, and carbohydrates provide energy, but protein deficiency risks wasting, common in cancer. Nurses prioritize this nutrient to bolster resilience against treatment side effects.
Question 3 of 9
What country did Florence Nightingale train in nursing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nightingale trained at Kaiserwerth, Germany, in 1851, under Fliedner's deaconess program gaining skills for Crimea. Not Belgium, US, or England (her later base), this German experience shaped her environmental focus, influencing nursing's formal education origins.
Question 4 of 9
When does the heart receives blood from the coronary artery?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Coronary arteries fill during diastole e.g., when the heart relaxes, aortic pressure pushes blood in. Systole (contraction), valve opening/closing (timing) differ. Nurses understand this e.g., in angina for perfusion timing, per cardiac cycle physiology.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is suctioning an adult client through a tracheostomy tube. During the procedure, the nurse notes that the client's oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry is $89 \%$. Which action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of $89% during suctioning indicates hypoxia; stopping the procedure (C) is the priority to restore oxygenation. Continuing (A) worsens desaturation. Calling respiratory (B) or changing catheters (D) delays action. C is correct. Rationale: Ceasing suctioning allows reoxygenation, preventing further decline, a critical step per oxygenation management guidelines, prioritizing patient stability.
Question 6 of 9
Case finding in RNTCP is based on :
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme (RNTCP) prioritizes accessible, rapid TB detection. Sputum culture (choice A) is highly specific but slow (weeks), making it impractical for initial case finding. Sputum microscopy (choice B) uses Ziehl-Neelsen staining to detect acid-fast bacilli, offering a quick, cost-effective method suitable for widespread screening, aligning with RNTCP's strategy. X-ray chest (choice C) detects lung abnormalities but isn't specific to TB and is less feasible in resource-limited settings. Mantoux test/PCR (choice D) identifies exposure or confirms TB molecularly, but these are supplementary, not primary, due to cost and complexity. B is correct because sputum microscopy is RNTCP's cornerstone for active case finding, enabling early treatment. Nurses play a key role in sputum collection and patient education, ensuring compliance and reducing TB transmission in communities.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is caring for a child with a diagnosis of meningitis. What clinical findings indicate an increase in intracranial pressure? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Meningitis can raise intracranial pressure (ICP); bradycardia (B) is a classic sign of Cushing's triad (with hypertension and irregular breathing), indicating severe ICP elevation. Irritability (A) is early, not specific. Hyperalertness (C) contrasts with lethargy. Decreased pulse pressure (D) isn't typical. B is correct. Rationale: Bradycardia reflects brainstem compression from ICP, a late and critical sign requiring urgent intervention, per pediatric neurology standards, distinguishing it from earlier or unrelated findings.
Question 8 of 9
A client with severe hypoxemia requires oxygen therapy. What is the appropriate delivery method for this client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: For a client with severe hypoxemia, a non-rebreather mask (D) is the most appropriate delivery method because it delivers the highest oxygen concentration up to 95% via a reservoir bag and one-way valves that prevent rebreathing exhaled air, ensuring maximal oxygen intake. Nasal cannula (A) provides low flow (24-44% oxygen) and suits mild hypoxemia, not severe cases. Simple face mask (B) offers moderate oxygen (40-60%) for stable needs, inadequate for severe hypoxemia. Venturi mask (C) delivers precise oxygen (24-50%) for conditions like COPD but not the high levels needed here. The non-rebreather's design addresses acute oxygen deficits effectively, critical in emergencies like severe hypoxemia, aligning with respiratory care standards to prevent tissue hypoxia and organ damage, per AACN guidelines.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following statement best describe nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nursing diagnosis is a client problem based on data (B), per NANDA e.g., impaired mobility. Not medical (A), not plan (C), not order (D) nurse-identified. B best defines its diagnostic role, making it correct.