ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is receiving intravenous vancomycin. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red man syndrome. This is a severe adverse reaction to vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, hypotension, and tachycardia. It can progress rapidly to anaphylaxis. Immediate reporting is crucial for prompt intervention. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg is within normal range, mild itching at the IV site is common and can be managed topically, and nausea and vomiting are common side effects of vancomycin but are not life-threatening compared to Red man syndrome.
Question 2 of 5
A client is being treated with an antidepressant for major depressive disorder. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C Rationale: 1. Stopping medication abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and a potential relapse of depressive symptoms. 2. The client should be educated on the importance of completing the full course of treatment. 3. This statement indicates a lack of understanding regarding the need for continued medication adherence. 4. Choices A, B, and D are all appropriate and demonstrate good understanding of antidepressant treatment.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed dabigatran (Pradaxa). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Take the medication at the same time each day. This instruction is crucial for maintaining consistent blood levels of dabigatran, maximizing its effectiveness in preventing blood clots. Taking it at the same time each day helps establish a routine and reduces the risk of missed doses. Choice A is incorrect because dabigatran should be taken without regard to meals. Choice B is incorrect as vitamin K does not interact with dabigatran. Choice D is incorrect because increasing high-potassium foods is not necessary for dabigatran therapy.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: INR of 2.5. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A target INR range for DVT treatment is typically 2.0-3.0. An INR of 2.5 indicates that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range, preventing excessive clotting while avoiding excessive bleeding. B: PTT measures the effectiveness of heparin, not warfarin. C: Hemoglobin level and D: Platelet count are not specific indicators of warfarin's therapeutic effect on clotting factors. In summary, the correct answer A is the most relevant laboratory value for monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin in a client with DVT.
Question 5 of 5
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use oxygen continuously, even while sleeping. In COPD, maintaining consistent oxygen levels is crucial to prevent hypoxia. Oxygen therapy should be used continuously, including during sleep, to ensure adequate oxygenation. Using oxygen only when short of breath (Choice B) may lead to hypoxia during periods of rest. Reporting difficulty breathing (Choice C) is important but not specific to oxygen therapy. Taking off oxygen while eating or drinking (Choice D) can result in decreased oxygen levels, which can be dangerous for someone with COPD.