ATI LPN
Perioperative Nursing Care NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The acute, life-threatening complication of MH results from the use of which agents?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Malignant hyperthermia (MH) results from succinylcholine and inhalation agents , known triggers in genetically susceptible patients. Hypnotics , nitrous oxide , and fentanyl don't typically cause MH. The rationale identifies etiology: succinylcholine (a depolarizing relaxant) and volatile anesthetics (e.g., halothane) disrupt calcium regulation in muscles, causing hypermetabolism. Nursing recognizes these agents to anticipate MH, ensuring rapid intervention (e.g., dantrolene), critical for survival, distinguishing MH from other anesthetic complications.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse transfers a patient to the PACU with an incision and drainage of an abscess in the right groin under general anesthesia. Blood pressure is 80/47 mm Hg, heart rate 117/min in sinus tachycardia, respiratory rate 28/min, pulse oximetry reading 93% on oxygen at 3 L nasal cannula, temp is 38.5°C. Using the SBAR charting format, which information should be included in assessment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In SBAR's assessment, vital signs and wound output are key, showing instability (hypotension, tachycardia, fever). Procedure is situation; orders are recommendation; history is background. The rationale follows SBAR: assessment presents objective data (BP 80/47, HR 117, temp 38.5°C), signaling shock or infection, guiding interventions. Nursing communicates clearly, ensuring team response, distinct from context or orders.
Question 3 of 5
The PACU nurse is caring for a postoperative patient. The patient's oxygen saturation drops from 98% to 88%. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The priority is calling the Rapid Response Team for an SpO2 drop to 88%, signaling hypoxia needing urgent escalation. Calling providers (choice A, B) or therapist delays. The rationale follows ABCs: 88% indicates respiratory compromise; rapid response delivers immediate expertise (e.g., oxygen, suction). Nursing acts decisively, ensuring oxygenation, distinct from slower consults, critical for patient stability.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse in an ambulatory surgery center has administered the following preoperative medications to a patient scheduled for general surgery: diazepam (Valium), cefazolin (Ancef), and famotidine (Pepcid). What mode of transportation to the operating room (OR) would be the most appropriate for the nurse to arrange for this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Stretcher with side rails up and accompanied by OR transport personnel,' as diazepam's sedative effects increase fall risk, requiring a stretcher unlike 'ambulatory with escort' (B, D) or 'wheelchair with family' (C), less safe. In nursing, patient safety post-sedation is paramount; A aligns with NCLEX Perioperative, prioritizing secure transport based on medication effects.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following items is included in a valid informed consent? Select all that apply
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Valid informed consent requires it be freely given , a physician obtains it , and age isn't strictly 16 or 18 capacity matters more. Choice C is primary for CSV. The rationale defines consent: it must be voluntary (no coercion), physician-led (surgeon typically), and based on competence, not arbitrary age (minors with guardians consent). Physician assistants (choice E, not D here) don't typically obtain it. Nursing ensures this process witnessing, checking voluntariness upholding patient autonomy, distinct from age-based or assistant-led misconceptions.