Regarding the Natural Killer (NK) cells:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: NK cells don't require any prior exposure before being active. NK cells are part of the innate immune system and can quickly respond to infected or abnormal cells without prior exposure or activation. They recognize stressed cells by detecting changes in surface markers. Choice A is incorrect because NK cells originate from lymphoid precursor cells. Choice C is incorrect because NK cells do not require prior exposure for their activity, although their response can be enhanced by cytokines. Choice D is incorrect because NK cells are not specific for particular viruses; they target a broad range of infected or abnormal cells.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Blood pressure. Cyclosporine, a medication used in postrenal transplantation clients, can cause hypertension as a side effect. Therefore, an increase in blood pressure is the most likely vital sign to be elevated. Pulse, respirations, and pulse oximetry are less likely to be directly affected by cyclosporine. Pulse and respirations may be elevated due to pain from the headache, but the primary concern in this case would be the blood pressure due to the medication's known side effects. Pulse oximetry is not typically affected by cyclosporine and is more related to oxygen saturation levels.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML). The presentation of a 60-year-old man with abdominal fullness, fatigue, leukocytosis, thrombocytosis, and the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome strongly suggests CML. The Philadelphia chromosome results from a reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, leading to the formation of the BCR-ABL fusion gene characteristic of CML. This gene encodes a constitutively active tyrosine kinase, driving uncontrolled proliferation of myeloid cells. Acute myeloid leukemia (A) typically presents with bone marrow failure, not leukocytosis and thrombocytosis. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (C) is more common in older adults, but it is characterized by lymphocytosis, not leukocytosis. Acute lymphocytic leukemia (D) usually presents with pancytopenia and blast cells in the peripheral blood, not leuk

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: CT scan of chest, abdomen, pelvis. This is the best next step as it helps in staging the disease extent and planning treatment. A bone marrow biopsy (A) is not typically needed in Hodgkin lymphoma. Liver biopsy (B) is not the initial step in evaluation. Staging laparotomy (C) is an invasive procedure and not the first-line investigation. CT scan (D) is preferred for initial staging due to its ability to detect lymph node involvement and assess organ involvement.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale for Answer D (No additional treatment): In this scenario, the patient likely has drug-induced hemolysis from the malaria prophylaxis. Since the hematocrit is not critically low and the patient is stable, the initial step is to discontinue the offending drug and monitor the patient closely. Additional treatment is not required unless the patient deteriorates or develops severe anemia. Summary of other choices: A: Splenectomy is not indicated in this case as the primary issue is drug-induced hemolysis, not a splenic disorder. B: Methylene blue is used for methemoglobinemia, not hemolysis caused by drug toxicity. C: Vitamin E is not the appropriate treatment for drug-induced hemolysis; it is more commonly used for conditions like vitamin E deficiency or antioxidant therapy.