ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Reasons for restricted distribution of drugs include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is correct because restricted distribution (e.g., REMS) is primarily for drugs with serious safety risks (e.g., thalidomide), not cost or supply alone. Choice A is incorrect as cost doesn't mandate restriction—insurance handles that. Choice C is wrong because limited supply isn't a REMS trigger. Choice D is incorrect since only B is the core reason.
Question 2 of 9
Differences between brand-name drugs and their generic equivalents include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is correct because generics have the same active ingredient as brand-name drugs but typically cost less, per FDA bioequivalence rules. Choice A is incorrect as active ingredients are identical. Choice C is wrong because color may differ but isn't a functional difference. Choice D is incorrect since only cost is a consistent distinction.
Question 3 of 9
Strategies to monitor controlled substance use include:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is correct because PDMPs track prescriptions, education informs risks, and urine screening detects misuse—all key monitoring tools per guidelines. Choice A is incorrect alone as it's one method. Choice B is wrong by itself because education is just part. Choice C is incorrect solo since screening is only one approach.
Question 4 of 9
The primary care NP performs a physical examination on an 89-year-old patient who is about to enter a skilled nursing facility. The patient reports having had chickenpox as a child. The NP should:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because Zostavax is recommended for adults over 60 to prevent shingles, regardless of prior chickenpox. Choice A is incorrect (titer not needed). Choice B is wrong (Varivax not for shingles). Choice D is inaccurate (prophylaxis not standard).
Question 5 of 9
A client diagnosed with thrombophlebitis 1 day ago suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath. The LPN/LVN understands that a life-threatening complication of this condition is which?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a critical complication of thrombophlebitis where a blood clot dislodges and travels to the lungs, obstructing blood flow. This obstruction can lead to chest pain, shortness of breath, and potentially fatal consequences, making it a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pneumonia, pulmonary edema, and myocardial infarction are not directly associated with thrombophlebitis and would not present with the sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath in this context.
Question 6 of 9
Drugs that use CYP 3A4 isoenzymes for metabolism may:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is correct because CYP 3A4 drugs can induce (speed up) or inhibit (slow down) metabolism of other drugs sharing this pathway, affecting their levels and efficacy. Choice A is incorrect as it's only half the story—induction happens, but inhibition does too. Choice B is wrong because it misses induction potential. Choice D is incorrect since both effects are well-documented with CYP 3A4.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with heart failure who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which sign of digoxin toxicity should the nurse monitor for?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin can cause decreased heart rate. Therefore, monitoring the client for signs of bradycardia is crucial. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hypertension is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity; instead, hypotension may occur. Hyperglycemia is not a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Insomnia is also not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity; instead, some patients may experience visual disturbances, confusion, or other neurological symptoms.
Question 8 of 9
Men may require higher doses of which drug class due to differences in body composition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is correct because men's greater lean mass dilutes water-soluble drugs, often requiring higher doses for efficacy, unlike others. Choice A is incorrect as lipid-soluble drugs align with fat, lower in men. Choice C is wrong because protein binding isn't sex-specific here. Choice D is incorrect since only water-soluble drugs apply.
Question 9 of 9
The client has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) and is being educated about dietary restrictions. Which food should the client be advised to avoid or eat in consistent amounts?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Spinach is high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin. It is important for clients taking warfarin to maintain consistent levels of vitamin K intake to ensure the medication works properly. Foods rich in vitamin K, such as spinach, can counteract the effects of warfarin, leading to potential complications. Therefore, clients on warfarin are advised to either avoid or consume vitamin K-rich foods, like spinach, in consistent amounts to maintain the medication's efficacy. Bananas, oranges, and yogurt are not high in vitamin K and do not significantly impact the effectiveness of warfarin, making them safe options for clients taking this medication.