Patient with GVHD after transplant. Best activity for traveler RN?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Administering oral cyclosporine is crucial for managing GVHD post-transplant. 2. Cyclosporine suppresses the immune response, reducing GVHD symptoms. 3. It is essential to maintain therapeutic drug levels for efficacy. 4. Assessing for infection signs (Choice B) and educating about infection prevention (Choice D) are important but not the immediate priority. 5. Infusing D5NS at 125 mL/hr (Choice C) is not indicated for GVHD management.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Hodgkin lymphoma B symptoms include all of the above. A - Loss of weight can be a symptom due to metabolic changes. B - Drenching night sweats are common in Hodgkin lymphoma. C - Fever without infection is a classic B symptom. Therefore, all three symptoms are characteristic of Hodgkin lymphoma B symptoms.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: T lymphocyte. T lymphocytes require IL-2 and IL-4 for conversion to mature circulating cells. IL-2 is crucial for T cell proliferation and differentiation, while IL-4 is essential for promoting T cell growth and differentiation into effector cells. Neutrophils (A) mature in the bone marrow, Eosinophils (B) primarily develop in response to IL-5, and B lymphocytes (C) mature in the bone marrow and require IL-7 for development.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Quinine and clindamycin. Quinine is recommended for treating malaria in pregnant women due to its safety profile during pregnancy. Clindamycin is often used in combination with quinine to enhance efficacy and reduce the risk of parasite resistance. - A (Atovaquone and proguanil) is contraindicated in pregnancy due to limited safety data. - B (Quinine and doxycycline) is not recommended in pregnant women as doxycycline can cause adverse effects on fetal development. - D (Mefloquine) is generally not recommended in pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aplastic anemia. In a 50-year-old with infections, petechiae, and a dry marrow tap, the presentation is indicative of bone marrow failure, characteristic of aplastic anemia. This condition results in pancytopenia, leading to infections, bleeding (petechiae), and a dry tap on bone marrow aspiration. Iron deficiency anemia (A) typically presents with microcytic hypochromic red blood cells, megaloblastic anemia (B) with macrocytic red blood cells, and hemolytic anemia (C) with evidence of red blood cell destruction.