Patient with ANC 300/mm³. Best staff under oncology RN supervision?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C - LPN with 2 years oncology experience Rationale: An LPN with 2 years of oncology experience is the best choice as they have specific knowledge and skills in oncology care, which is crucial when managing a patient with a low ANC. They can provide appropriate care under the supervision of an oncology RN. Incorrect Choices: A: LPN from same-day surgery - Lacks oncology-specific experience. B: RN from agency on orientation - Limited experience in oncology care. D: RN new from ED - Limited oncology knowledge and experience.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Surgical lymph node excision. This is the most appropriate diagnostic test for lymphadenopathy with suspected lymphoma as it provides an adequate tissue sample for definitive diagnosis through histopathological examination. Fine-needle aspirate (B) may not yield enough tissue for accurate diagnosis. Abdominal x-ray (A) and bone scan (D) are not specific for assessing lymphoma and do not provide tissue for histological examination. Surgical excision allows for comprehensive evaluation of the lymph node architecture and cellular characteristics, aiding in accurate diagnosis and treatment planning.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Aplastic anemia. Aplastic anemia is characterized by pancytopenia, which includes low red blood cell count (MCV 90 fL) and low reticulocyte production index. Thalassemia (A) would typically present with microcytic anemia, not normocytic. Vitamin B12 deficiency (B) would present with macrocytic anemia. Iron deficiency anemia (D) would present with microcytic anemia. Therefore, based on the given data, the most likely cause is aplastic anemia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lymphocyte predominance. Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of Hodgkin's lymphoma. In this type, Reed-Sternberg cells are infrequent, and popcorn cells are present. This presentation is typical of lymphocyte predominance subtype. Nodular sclerosis (A) is characterized by bands of collagen separating nodules, mixed cellularity (B) has a mixed cell population with frequent Reed-Sternberg cells, and lymphocyte depleted (D) has few lymphocytes and more Reed-Sternberg cells.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because iron is better absorbed in the ferrous form compared to the ferric form. Ferrous iron is more soluble and readily absorbed by the body through the duodenum and upper small intestine. Intrinsic factor is needed for the absorption of vitamin B12, not iron (Choice B). Ascorbic acid actually enhances iron absorption by reducing ferric iron to the more absorbable ferrous form, so Choice C is incorrect. Large intestine absorption (Choice A) is not a significant route for iron absorption in the body.