ATI LPN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019 Questions
Question 1 of 5
On what are most nursing paradigms based?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Most nursing paradigms are founded on the understanding and application of nursing theories through studying them and gaining practical experiences in clinical settings. While the nurse's ability to perform procedures with skill is important, it is not the foundation of nursing paradigms. Dr. Jean Watson's transpersonal caring theory and Maslow's theory of hierarchy of needs are significant in nursing practice but do not serve as the basis for most nursing paradigms, which are shaped by a combination of studying nursing theories and hands-on clinical experiences.
Question 2 of 5
A 48-year-old male patient screened for diabetes at a clinic has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L). The nurse will plan to teach the patient about
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a patient has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L), indicating prediabetes, the initial approach is focused on lifestyle modifications to lower blood glucose levels. These changes may include dietary adjustments, increased physical activity, and weight management. Self-monitoring of blood glucose, insulin therapy, and oral hypoglycemic medications are not typically the first-line interventions for patients with prediabetes. Educating the patient about lifestyle changes to lower blood glucose is the most appropriate action at this stage.
Question 3 of 5
When is the first opportunity for a manager to reduce turnover?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The manager's first opportunity to reduce turnover occurs after three months of employment. During this period, the manager can assess the employee's performance, engagement, and fit within the organization. It allows the manager to address any concerns, provide support, and intervene early to prevent turnover. Waiting until after a certain tenure period might be too late to effectively mitigate turnover risk, as issues could have already escalated. Therefore, the three-month mark is a critical point for managers to proactively manage turnover. Choices A and B are incorrect because they do not allow sufficient time for the manager to evaluate the employee and take proactive measures to reduce turnover. Choice D is incorrect as it is too vague and does not provide a specific actionable timeframe for addressing turnover concerns.
Question 4 of 5
What is the main goal of discharge planning?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The main goal of discharge planning is to prevent hospital readmissions by ensuring patients have a clear and effective plan for post-discharge care. This includes coordinating follow-up appointments, medication management, and providing necessary support services to promote a successful transition from the hospital to home or another care setting. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because discharge planning is not primarily about speedy discharge, medication education, or transitioning between care levels; its main focus is on preventing readmissions through comprehensive post-discharge care.
Question 5 of 5
When should a critical pathway be revised?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A critical pathway should be revised when variances in the patient's progress indicate a new trend or deviation from the expected course of treatment. This allows healthcare providers to adjust the pathway to ensure optimal patient care and outcomes. Changes in the critical pathway are not typically driven by its length or external factors like team member retirements or client discharges. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A is incorrect because the length of the critical pathway alone does not determine the need for revision. Choices C and D are irrelevant to the patient's progress and treatment plan, making them incorrect.
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