ATI LPN
Medical Surgical Nursing Neurological Disorders Questions
Question 1 of 5
Olfactory information transmitted to the orbitofrontal cortex passes through which thalamic nucleus?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Olfactory signals reach the orbitofrontal cortex via the dorsomedial thalamic nucleus. TMP13 p. 691
Question 2 of 5
When teaching about clopidogrel (Plavix), the nurse will tell the patient with cerebral atherosclerosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clopidogrel inhibits platelet function and increases the risk for gastrointestinal bleeding, so patients should be advised to notify the health care provider about any signs of bleeding. The medication does not lower blood pressure, decrease plaque formation, or dissolve clots.
Question 3 of 5
Which information about the patient who has had a subarachnoid hemorrhage is most important to communicate to the health care provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To prevent cerebral vasospasm and maintain cerebral perfusion, BP needs to be maintained at a level higher than $90 \mathrm{~mm} \mathrm{Hg}$ systolic after a subarachnoid hemorrhage. A low BP or drop in BP indicates a need to administer fluids and/or vasopressors to increase the BP. An ongoing headache, RBCs in the CSF, and a stiff neck are all typical clinical manifestations of a subarachnoid hemorrhage and do not need to be rapidly communicated to the health care provider.
Question 4 of 5
What action should you take for a patient experiencing a generalized seizure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Loosening restrictive clothing during a generalized seizure ensures airway patency and comfort. Supine positioning risks aspiration, restraints and tongue blades are unsafe, and a hypothermia blanket is irrelevant.
Question 5 of 5
A 72-year-old male presents with abnormal speech and right-sided weakness. He was last seen normal approximately 1 hour ago. Past medical history is significant for hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Five years ago, he underwent coronary artery bypass grafting for the management of a myocardial infarction. On exam, his speech is non-fluent and sparse, with impaired repetition. He has difficulty naming even common objects. Comprehension is relatively intact. There is a right-sided mouth droop, with sparing of the forehead. Strength is 3/5 throughout the right upper extremity, and 4+/5 in the right lower extremity. Sensation appears intact. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acute stroke symptoms (Broca’s aphasia, right-sided weakness) within 1 hour require a head CT first to rule out hemorrhage before considering thrombolysis (alteplase) or thrombectomy, both viable within the time window. Aspirin is for secondary prevention.