ATI LPN
Cardiovascular Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Mr. Gomez is asymptomatic with neuromuscular disorder and asks if he needs an ICD. Your recommendation would be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In neuromuscular disorders, ICDs are recommended for primary and secondary prevention due to increased risk of sudden cardiac death, even if asymptomatic.
Question 2 of 5
A 69 year-old woman with a 3 cm, lymph node negative, ER+ tumor
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This patient has an estrogen receptor-positive (ER+) tumor, which is typically responsive to endocrine therapy (e.g., tamoxifen or aromatase inhibitors). Given her age and the tumor characteristics (3 cm, lymph node negative), endocrine therapy is a standard approach rather than immediate mastectomy, chemotherapy, or monitoring alone.
Question 3 of 5
Within a 2- 3 day time period, multiple patients from an ECF are seen in your ER with severe N/V and non-bloody diarrhea. Temperature elevations are minimal, if any. What is the most likely explanation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Norovirus is the most likely cause of outbreaks of gastroenteritis with these symptoms.
Question 4 of 5
A 56-year-old woman is found to have normochromic-normocytic anemia, hypophosphatemia, hypouricemia, glycosuria, proteinuria(+1 by dipstick testing), and renal insufficiency(serum creatinine concentration of 2.6mg/dl). Urine protein creatinine ratio(UPC) was 3.1. urine albumin creatinine ratio(UAC) was .3. Urine albumin protein ratio(UAPR) 10% Which ONE of the following is the MOST LIKELY cause of this constellation of findings?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Findings such as hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, anemia, and bone lesions suggest multiple myeloma. The low UAC and UPC ratios point towards non-albumin proteinuria, typical of Bence-Jones proteinuria seen in multiple myeloma.
Question 5 of 5
20-y nonsmoking female presents with persistent complaints of dyspnea, wheeze, and cough productive of yellow sputum. She was treated with a course of tapering steroids, levofloxacin, bronchodilators, and inhaled corticosteroids which provided some relief. She has been treated repeatedly for similar symptoms over the course of two years. VS stable. Physical exam identifies diminished breath sounds with localized wheeze at the right lung base. Available chest x-rays show persistent right lower lobe infiltrate over the last 8 months. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A persistent infiltrate with localized wheeze in a young nonsmoker suggests an endobronchial obstruction, commonly a bronchial carcinoid tumor. These tumors can cause recurrent symptoms and partial response to therapy due to airway obstruction.