ATI LPN
Questions on the Immune System Questions
Question 1 of 5
Most appropriate test for hemophilia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT). Hemophilia is a bleeding disorder due to deficiency of clotting factors. PTT specifically measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation, which is affected in hemophilia. Prothrombin time (A) measures the extrinsic pathway, not specific for hemophilia. Bleeding time (B) assesses platelet function, not relevant for hemophilia. Platelet count (D) evaluates the number of platelets, not the clotting factor deficiency seen in hemophilia.
Question 2 of 5
After reviewing lab results, which client to see first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time 28 seconds. A prolonged prothrombin time indicates impaired blood clotting function, posing a higher risk of bleeding. This is a critical issue that requires immediate attention to prevent severe complications. INR of 2.8 (choice A) is slightly elevated but not as urgent as PT. Platelet count of 128,000/mm³ (choice B) is low but not an immediate concern unless it drops further. RBC count of 5.1 million/L (choice D) is within the normal range and does not indicate an urgent issue.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse caring for a client who has an immunosuppressive disorder knows that continual monitoring of the client is critical. What is the primary rationale behind the need for continual monitoring?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Continual monitoring is crucial for early detection and treatment of infections in clients with immunosuppressive disorders. By closely observing the client's condition, the nurse can identify subtle signs of infection early, allowing prompt intervention to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address the primary rationale for monitoring immunosuppressed clients. Meeting functional needs, administering medications, and maintaining accurate documentation are important but not as critical as detecting and treating infections promptly in this population.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client with stage 3 human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). After assessing the client's gastrointestinal system and analyzing the data, which nursing diagnosis is most likely to be the priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diarrhea. For a client with stage 3 HIV, diarrhea is a priority nursing diagnosis due to the increased risk of opportunistic infections and medication side effects causing gastrointestinal disturbances. Diarrhea can lead to dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and malnutrition, which can exacerbate the client's condition. Acute abdominal pain (choice A) may be a symptom of an underlying issue, but addressing diarrhea is more crucial in this case. Bowel incontinence (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are not typically associated with stage 3 HIV and are less urgent compared to diarrhea in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
A client with AIDS is admitted to the hospital with AIDS-related wasting syndrome and AIDS-related anorexia. What drug has been found to promote significant weight gain in clients with AIDS by increasing body fat stores?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Megestrol. Megestrol is a synthetic progestin that has been found to promote significant weight gain in clients with AIDS-related wasting syndrome by increasing body fat stores. It stimulates appetite and can lead to improved food intake, resulting in weight gain. Psyllium (A) is a bulk-forming laxative, Momordica charantia (B) is a plant used in traditional medicine with no proven weight gain effects, and Ranitidine (D) is a medication used to reduce stomach acid production, none of which promote weight gain in clients with AIDS.