ATI LPN
Quiz Questions Hematologic System Questions
Question 1 of 5
Lab diagnosis of leishmaniasis, expected parasite stage in vitro?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Promastigote. In vitro diagnosis of leishmaniasis involves culturing the promastigote stage of the parasite. Promastigotes are the infective stage found in the sandfly vector and are typically used for laboratory diagnosis. Amastigotes are the intracellular forms found in mammalian hosts, not in vitro. Trypomastigotes are seen in Trypanosoma species, not Leishmania. Schizonts are not typically used for diagnosis of leishmaniasis.
Question 2 of 5
Best way to assess pallor in a dark-skinned client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because assessing the conjunctiva of the eye is the best way to evaluate pallor in a dark-skinned client. Pallor is often difficult to detect on the skin in dark-skinned individuals. The conjunctiva is a mucous membrane that covers the eye and can show signs of pallor, such as a paler color. This method provides a reliable indicator of pallor in dark-skinned clients. Choice B (having the client open hand widely) and choice C (looking at the roof of the mouth) are not as effective in assessing pallor in dark-skinned clients because these areas may not show visible signs of pallor. Choice D (palpating for mild swelling) is also not relevant to assessing pallor, as swelling and pallor are distinct signs with different assessment methods.
Question 3 of 5
A client with Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (WAS) is admitted to the medical unit. The nurse caring for the client should prioritize which intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protective isolation. WAS is an immunodeficiency disorder, making the client highly susceptible to infections. Protective isolation helps prevent exposure to pathogens, reducing the risk of infections. Fresh-frozen plasma (B) is not a priority as it does not address the immediate risk of infection. Chest physiotherapy (C) and nutritional supplementation (D) are important but do not directly address the primary concern of preventing infections in an immunocompromised client like in WAS.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is planning the care of a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) who is admitted to the unit with Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP). Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for this client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ineffective airway clearance. This is the highest priority for a client with AIDS and PCP as it can lead to respiratory distress and compromise oxygenation. Priority setting involves addressing life-threatening issues first. Impaired airway clearance can lead to respiratory failure, so it must be addressed immediately. Choices B, C, and D are important but not as critical as ensuring adequate airway clearance in a client with PCP. Impaired oral mucous membranes, imbalanced nutrition, and activity intolerance can be addressed once the airway is secured.
Question 5 of 5
A client with HIV will be receiving care in the home setting. What aspect of self-care should the nurse emphasize during discharge education?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Importance of personal hygiene. This is crucial for a client with HIV to prevent infections. Hygiene practices like regular handwashing can reduce the risk of opportunistic infections. Prophylactic antibiotics (A) may be prescribed, but emphasizing hygiene is more fundamental. Wasting syndrome (C) is important, but not as essential as hygiene. Adjusting antiretroviral dosages (D) should be managed by the healthcare provider, not the client.