Ketoconazole is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of candidiasis. Which interventions should the nurse include when administering this medication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Monitor liver function studies. Rationale: 1. Ketoconazole is known to have hepatotoxic side effects. 2. Monitoring liver function studies is essential to detect any signs of liver damage early. 3. Regular monitoring allows for timely intervention if hepatic toxicity occurs. Other Choices: A: Restricting fluid intake is not necessary for ketoconazole administration. C: Administering ketoconazole with an antacid may reduce its absorption. D: Avoiding sun exposure is not directly related to ketoconazole administration for candidiasis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Palpation and transillumination. This is the most appropriate first step because it allows for a physical examination of the scrotal mass to determine its characteristics and location. Palpation can help assess the size, shape, consistency, and tenderness of the mass. Transillumination can differentiate between fluid-filled (e.g., hydrocele) and solid masses (e.g., testicular tumor). This initial assessment helps guide further diagnostic workup and management decisions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because performing tumor markers (HCG and α-fetoprotein) or scrotal ultrasonography or referring for orchiectomy without a proper initial physical examination would be premature and may lead to unnecessary interventions or delays in appropriate management.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Refer for surgical biopsy. In this case, a 5-cm thigh mass that is fixed to muscle in a 64-year-old man raises concern for a potential malignant tumor. Surgical biopsy is the most appropriate next step to establish a definitive diagnosis and determine the nature of the mass. This will help guide further management, whether it requires surgical excision, chemotherapy, or other treatments. Reexamining in 3 months (choice A) may delay diagnosis and treatment if the mass is indeed malignant. A bone scan (choice B) is not the initial investigation for a soft tissue mass. Treating with cephalexin (choice C) is not indicated as this mass is likely not an infectious process.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Recipient antibodies vs. donor. Delayed hemolysis post-transfusion is often due to the recipient developing antibodies against the donor's red blood cells. This immune response can lead to hemolysis days to weeks after the transfusion. Options A and B are incorrect as they do not involve an immune response causing hemolysis. Option D involves a different type of immune response (IgE vs. IgA) that is not typically responsible for delayed hemolysis post-transfusion.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: White blood cell count of 16,000/mm³. Elevated WBC count could indicate an infection, which is crucial to report before knee arthroscopy to prevent complications. Hematocrit (A) and hemoglobin level (B) are important but not as urgent for this procedure. Platelet count (C) is not directly related to infection detection.