ATI LPN
Questions for Review of Systems Gastrointestinal Questions
Question 1 of 5
It is 6 pm; a patient presents to you with sudden onset shortness of breath since 5 pm. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be the underlying diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Anxiety is less likely to cause sudden onset shortness of breath within an hour compared to acute physiological causes like pneumothorax, making E the least likely.
Question 2 of 5
A 45-year-old woman with a history of arthritis has had severe heartburn and indigestion for six months, which has been refractory to antacid use. Her history is remarkable for arthritic pain in her hands and Raynaud's phenomenon. Her physical examination shows multiple telangectasias on her face and arms. You obtain an esophageal manometry study. What findings are consistent with this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient has scleroderma esophagus, which results in atrophy of the esophageal smooth muscle. As a result, such patients lose peristalsis and LES tone, leading to severe GERD symptoms and esophagitis.
Question 3 of 5
A 56-year-old woman presents complaining of chest discomfort. She had seen a cardiologist who performed a stress test and reported that the problem was not cardiac in nature. She notes that the pain is worse at times of stress. There is no relationship with eating but sometimes it can occur while lying flat. A barium swallow reveals uncoordinated contractions along the esophageal wall consistent with 'corkscrew esophagus.' All of the following are appropriate therapies to try for this condition except:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This patient has chest pain due to diffuse esophageal spasm. Given that there is often underlying gastroesophageal reflux, it is appropriate to try proton-pump inhibitors. Other therapies are geared to relaxing the smooth muscle. Nitrates, calcium channel-blockers, and benzodiazepines may be helpful in individual patients. Additionally, antidepressants (e.g., SSRIs, tricyclics) and antipsychotic medications have been used. Pseudoephedrine has not been found to be helpful for this condition. It can cause some degree of smooth-muscle contraction, so theoretically it should not be used.
Question 4 of 5
A 40-year-old woman presents complaining of a one-day history of intense epigastric abdominal, nausea, and vomiting. She reports that she has never had symptoms like this before. She has no significant past medical history. She denies cigarette use. She drinks about two drinks per week socially. She denies drug use. She takes no medications. Her physical examination is remarkable for a temperature of $100.2^{\circ} \mathrm{F}$, pulse of $100 / \mathrm{min}$, respiratory rate $20 / \mathrm{min}$, blood pressure 115/75. There is epigastric tenderness that extends to the right upper quadrant. There is no rebound tenderness although there is some voluntary guarding. Bowel sounds are present. Her laboratory values reveal the following: WBC 8.6/mm3, HCT 36%, Platelets 140/mm3, AST 33 U/L, ALT 22 U/L, Alkaline phosphatase 86 U/L, Amylase 300 U/L, Lipase 250 U/L, Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL, EKG Normal sinus rhythm, no evidence of ischemia, Upright chest x-ray No infiltrates, effusions, or evidence of free air under the diaphragms. What is the most appropriate next test to order?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This woman presents with signs and symptoms consistent with acute pancreatitis. After initial management, the goal should be to determine the underlying etiology of the attack. Gallstones and alcohol are the leading causes in the United States. Since this woman does not have a significant alcohol intake history, gallstones should be suspected. An ultrasound is the best test to detect gallstones. An abdominal x-ray is unnecessary since it would add little information and most gallstones would not be seen on plain x-ray. A CT scan is a good test for imaging the pancreas but ultrasound is better for detecting gallstones. In the absence of evidence of infection or severe pancreatitis, routine CT scanning is unnecessary. ERCP and HIDA scans do not visualize the gallbladder well.
Question 5 of 5
A 75-year-old man presents two days after having sudden onset of abdominal pain in his left lower quadrant, which lasted for one day and was associated with the passage of several episodes of bloody stool. His pain has now resolved. He had a similar episode one month previously. His past medical history is notable for hypertension, diabetes mellitus, atrial fibrillation, and previous coronary artery bypass surgery. His medications include a $\beta$-blocker, metformin, and digoxin. His last screening colonoscopy four years ago was unremarkable. His abdominal exam is notable for mild tenderness in his left lower quadrant but is otherwise unremarkable. His cardiovascular exam is notable for an irregular heart rhythm with a normal ventricular rate. His labs reveal mild anemia, mildly elevated glucose levels, a normal white count and lactate levels and his abdominal x-ray is unremarkable. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Colonic ischemia is the most likely diagnosis. Although diverticulitis and inflammatory bowel disease are possible, the short history is against IBD and to a lesser extent diverticulitis because the symptoms resolved without antibiotics. Colonic ischemia can present with mild transient symptoms that resolve without evidence on colonoscopy or persist with segmental hemorrhagic colitis, bleeding into the submucosa, gangrene, and eventually structuring. In addition to the causes listed in Answer C, other well-recognized causes of colonic ischemia include emboli, hypotension, vasculitis, hypercoagulable states, vascular surgery, and other drugs such as cocaine.