ATI LPN
ATI Community Health Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
In the year 1980, the World Health Organization declared the Philippines, along with some other countries in the Western Pacific Region, 'free' of which disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Smallpox. In 1980, the World Health Organization declared the Philippines and other countries in the Western Pacific Region 'free' of smallpox due to successful global vaccination campaigns. Smallpox is caused by the variola virus and is characterized by a distinctive rash. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Pneumonic plague is a severe form of the bubonic plague caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis. B: Poliomyelitis is a viral infection that can lead to paralysis, but it was not eradicated in 1980. D: Anthrax is a bacterial infection that primarily affects animals but can also infect humans.
Question 2 of 9
During prenatal consultation, a client asked you if she can have her delivery at home. After history taking and physical examination, you advised her against a home delivery. Which of the following findings disqualifies her for a home delivery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The OB score G5P3 means the client has had 5 pregnancies with 3 live births. This indicates a history of multiple pregnancies and deliveries, suggesting a higher risk for complications during labor. This would disqualify her for a home delivery due to the increased potential for obstetric emergencies. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: - B: Palmar pallor may indicate anemia but can be managed in a hospital setting. - C: Blood pressure of 130/80 is within normal range and does not necessarily disqualify her for a home delivery. - D: Cephalic presentation means the baby's head is down, which is a favorable position for delivery and does not disqualify her for a home birth.
Question 3 of 9
Sputum examination is the major screening tool for pulmonary tuberculosis. Clients may sometimes receive false negative results in this exam. This means that the test is not perfect in terms of which characteristic of a diagnostic examination?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Define false negative - An individual with the disease incorrectly identified as disease-free. Step 2: Understand sensitivity - Ability to correctly identify individuals with the disease. Step 3: False negatives indicate low sensitivity. Step 4: Sensitivity is a key characteristic of a diagnostic test. Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is D: Sensitivity. Summary: A: Effectiveness - Overall ability of the test to achieve its intended purpose. B: Efficacy - Ability of the test under ideal conditions. C: Specificity - Ability to correctly identify individuals without the disease. D: Sensitivity - Ability to correctly identify individuals with the disease.
Question 4 of 9
Knowing that malnutrition is a common community health issue, you decided to conduct a nutritional assessment. What population is particularly vulnerable to protein-energy malnutrition (PEM)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, under 5-year-old children. They are particularly vulnerable to protein-energy malnutrition (PEM) due to their high nutritional needs for growth and development. Infants and young children have limited food intake capacity and are dependent on caregivers for proper nutrition. This age group is at a critical stage of growth, making them more susceptible to the negative impact of malnutrition on physical and cognitive development. Pregnant women and the elderly (choice A) have specific nutritional needs but are not as vulnerable to PEM as young children. Choices C and D are incorrect as 1-4-year-old children and school-age children have a lower risk of PEM compared to under 5-year-old children.
Question 5 of 9
What is given to a child with measles?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin A. During measles, Vitamin A supplementation is crucial to reduce the risk of complications and improve recovery. Vitamin A deficiency is common in children with measles and can lead to severe outcomes. Tetanus toxoid (A) is not indicated in measles treatment. Vitamin D (C) and Vitamin E (D) do not play a significant role in managing measles symptoms. In summary, Vitamin A is essential for children with measles to prevent complications and support recovery, making it the correct choice among the options provided.
Question 6 of 9
Which demographic tool may be used to describe the sex composition of the population?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all of the choices can be used to describe the sex composition of the population. A, the sex ratio, compares the number of males to females. B, sex proportion, also refers to the distribution of males and females in a population. C, population pyramid, visually displays the age and sex distribution of a population. Therefore, any of these tools can be utilized to describe the sex composition accurately.
Question 7 of 9
Which numerator is used in computing the general fertility rate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Number of registered live births. The general fertility rate is calculated by dividing the number of live births in a specific period by the total number of women of reproductive age during that period. This numerator reflects the actual occurrence of live births in the population, making it the most appropriate measure for determining fertility rates accurately. A: Estimated midyear population is not used as the numerator because it does not directly measure fertility rates. C: Number of pregnancies in the year includes all pregnancies, not just live births, which would overestimate the fertility rate. D: Number of females of reproductive age is not used as the numerator as it represents the total population, not the specific group giving birth.
Question 8 of 9
In the past year, Barangay A had an average population of 1655. There were 46 babies born in that year, 2 of whom died less than 4 weeks after birth, and 4 stillbirths were recorded. What is the neonatal mortality rate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The neonatal mortality rate is calculated as the number of neonatal deaths (deaths within the first 28 days of life) divided by the number of live births in a given period, multiplied by 1000. In this case, the number of neonatal deaths is 2 (babies who died less than 4 weeks after birth), and the number of live births is 46 (babies born excluding stillbirths). Therefore, the calculation is (2/46) * 1000 = 43.5/1000. This rate represents the number of neonatal deaths per 1000 live births in Barangay A for that year. Choice B is correct as it accurately represents the neonatal mortality rate based on the information provided. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculation using the specific data given.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following vaccines is recommended to be given at birth?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: BCG. BCG vaccine is recommended at birth to prevent tuberculosis. It is given to protect infants from severe forms of TB. Other choices (B: Hepatitis B, C: OPV, D: Measles) are typically given at later stages as part of the routine childhood vaccination schedule. Hepatitis B vaccine is usually given within 24 hours of birth, OPV is given in multiple doses starting at 6 weeks of age, and Measles vaccine is given at around 12-15 months of age. Therefore, BCG is the recommended vaccine to be given at birth compared to the other choices.