ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
In a prenatal clinic, a client in the first trimester of pregnancy has a health record that includes this data: G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. How should the nurse interpret this information? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The data "G3 T1 P0 A1 L1" indicates the client has had 3 pregnancies (G3), 1 term delivery (T1), 0 preterm deliveries (P0), 1 living child (A1), and 1 living child currently (L1). Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client has one living child (A1) from one term delivery (T1). Choice D ("ALL OF THE ABOVE - has one living child") is correct as it summarizes the information accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not encompass all the aspects of the data provided in the client's health record.
Question 2 of 9
A client at 42 weeks of gestation is having an ultrasound. For which of the following conditions should the nurse prepare for an amnioinfusion? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A client at 42 weeks of gestation is at risk for oligohydramnios, which is associated with decreased amniotic fluid levels. Amnioinfusion can be used to increase amniotic fluid volume to prevent fetal cord compression and facilitate fetal movement during labor. Summary: - B: Hydramnios (excessive amniotic fluid) does not require amnioinfusion. - C: Fetal cord compression is a reason for amnioinfusion, not a condition to prepare for. - D: Polyhydramnios (excessive amniotic fluid) does not typically require amnioinfusion unless there are complicating factors.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is preparing to perform Leopold maneuvers for a client. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct sequence for performing Leopold maneuvers is to first palpate the fundus to identify the fetal part (A), then determine the location of the fetal back (B), and finally palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet (C). Choosing option D (All of the Above) is correct because it encompasses all the necessary steps in the correct order to perform Leopold maneuvers effectively. Palpating the fundus helps identify the presenting part, determining the location of the fetal back provides information on the fetal lie, and palpating for the presenting part at the inlet helps confirm the position of the fetus. The other choices are incorrect because they do not provide the complete sequence required for performing Leopold maneuvers accurately.
Question 4 of 9
A healthcare provider is assisting with the care for a client who has a prescription for magnesium sulfate. The provider should recognize that which of the following are contraindications for the use of this medication? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Magnesium sulfate is contraindicated in cases of fetal distress, cervical dilation greater than 6 cm, and vaginal bleeding. Fetal distress can be worsened by magnesium sulfate, and it can lead to respiratory depression in the newborn. Cervical dilation greater than 6 cm indicates advanced labor, where the risk of uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage is increased with magnesium sulfate use. Vaginal bleeding may be a sign of placental abruption or other complications, which can be exacerbated by magnesium sulfate. Therefore, all three options are contraindications for the use of magnesium sulfate in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
A full-term newborn is being assessed by a nurse 15 minutes after birth. Which of the following findings requires intervention by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B (Respiratory rate 18/min) Rationale: A normal respiratory rate for a newborn is 30-60 breaths/min. A rate of 18/min is below the normal range, indicating potential respiratory distress requiring immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. Summary of other choices: A: Heart rate 168/min - Normal range for a newborn is 120-160/min. C: Tremors - Common in newborns due to immature nervous system, usually self-resolving. D: Fine crackles - May be present due to residual amniotic fluid and typically resolve without intervention.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse at an antepartum clinic is caring for a client who is at 4 months of gestation. The client reports continued nausea, vomiting, and scant, prune-colored discharge. The client has experienced no weight loss and has a fundal height larger than expected. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydatidiform mole. At 4 months of gestation, prune-colored discharge indicates possible passage of vesicular tissue characteristic of a molar pregnancy. This, along with continued nausea, vomiting, and larger fundal height, are signs of a hydatidiform mole. Hyperemesis gravidarum (A) typically involves severe nausea and vomiting leading to weight loss, which the client did not experience. Threatened abortion (B) presents with vaginal bleeding and cramping, not prune-colored discharge. Preterm labor (D) is characterized by regular contractions leading to cervical changes, not the symptoms described.
Question 7 of 9
A client in a family planning clinic requests oral contraceptives. Which of the following findings in the client's history should be recognized as contraindications to oral contraceptives? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Cholecystitis, hypertension, and migraine headaches are all contraindications to oral contraceptives. Cholecystitis can be exacerbated by oral contraceptives. Hypertension increases the risk of cardiovascular events with oral contraceptives. Migraine headaches, especially with aura, are associated with an increased risk of stroke when combined with oral contraceptives. Therefore, considering these risks, it is crucial to recognize these findings as contraindications to prescribing oral contraceptives.
Question 8 of 9
A client who is pregnant states that her last menstrual period was April 1st. What is the client's estimated date of delivery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The estimated date of delivery (EDD) is calculated by adding 280 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP). In this case, April 1st + 280 days = January 8, which is the correct EDD. Choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not account for the 280-day gestation period from the LMP.
Question 9 of 9
During a nonstress test for a pregnant client, a nurse uses an acoustic vibration device. The client inquires about its purpose. Which response should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the acoustic vibration device is used during a nonstress test to wake up a sleeping fetus, ensuring that the baby is active and responsive during the test. This helps to assess the baby's well-being and monitor its heart rate patterns. Choice A is incorrect as the device does not stimulate uterine contractions. Choice B is incorrect as it does not decrease the incidence of contractions. Choice C is incorrect as the device does not lull the fetus to sleep, but rather ensures the fetus is awake and moving during the test.