ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
In a prenatal clinic, a client in the first trimester of pregnancy has a health record that includes this data: G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. How should the nurse interpret this information? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The data "G3 T1 P0 A1 L1" indicates the client has had 3 pregnancies (G3), 1 term delivery (T1), 0 preterm deliveries (P0), 1 living child (A1), and 1 living child currently (L1). Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client has one living child (A1) from one term delivery (T1). Choice D ("ALL OF THE ABOVE - has one living child") is correct as it summarizes the information accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not encompass all the aspects of the data provided in the client's health record.
Question 2 of 9
A healthcare provider is reinforcing teaching with a client about a new prescription for medroxyprogesterone. Which of the following information should the provider include in the teaching? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all options are relevant when teaching a client about medroxyprogesterone. A, weight fluctuations can occur due to hormonal changes. B, irregular vaginal spotting is a common side effect of medroxyprogesterone. C, increasing calcium intake is important to prevent bone density loss associated with long-term medroxyprogesterone use. Therefore, all options are essential for comprehensive client education. Other choices are incorrect because excluding any of these key points could lead to incomplete information and potential misunderstandings regarding the medication's effects and management.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse at an antepartum clinic is caring for a client who is at 4 months of gestation. The client reports continued nausea, vomiting, and scant, prune-colored discharge. The client has experienced no weight loss and has a fundal height larger than expected. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydatidiform mole. At 4 months of gestation, prune-colored discharge indicates possible passage of vesicular tissue characteristic of a molar pregnancy. This, along with continued nausea, vomiting, and larger fundal height, are signs of a hydatidiform mole. Hyperemesis gravidarum (A) typically involves severe nausea and vomiting leading to weight loss, which the client did not experience. Threatened abortion (B) presents with vaginal bleeding and cramping, not prune-colored discharge. Preterm labor (D) is characterized by regular contractions leading to cervical changes, not the symptoms described.
Question 4 of 9
A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about potential adverse effects of implantable progestins. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider include? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the Above. Implantable progestins are hormonal contraceptives known to cause common adverse effects such as nausea, irregular vaginal bleeding, and weight gain. Nausea is a common side effect due to hormonal changes. Irregular vaginal bleeding can occur as a result of hormonal imbalance. Weight gain is a known side effect associated with progestin use. Therefore, all of the listed adverse effects should be included in the client education. Other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass the full range of potential adverse effects associated with implantable progestins.
Question 5 of 9
A client who is pregnant states that her last menstrual period was April 1st. What is the client's estimated date of delivery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The estimated date of delivery (EDD) is calculated by adding 280 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP). In this case, April 1st + 280 days = January 8, which is the correct EDD. Choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not account for the 280-day gestation period from the LMP.
Question 6 of 9
A client at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa is actively bleeding. Which medication should the provider likely prescribe?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Betamethasone. Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to promote fetal lung maturity in preterm labor. In this scenario, at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa and active bleeding, the priority is to promote fetal lung maturity in case of premature delivery due to the risk of maternal hemorrhage. Indomethacin (B) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug and not indicated in this situation. Nifedipine (C) is a calcium channel blocker used for preterm labor to delay contractions, not for placenta previa and active bleeding. Methylergonovine (D) is used for postpartum hemorrhage and not indicated in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
A client who is pregnant is scheduled for a contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following findings are indications for this procedure? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, All of the Above. 1. Decreased fetal movement indicates fetal distress, necessitating CST. 2. IUGR implies potential placental insufficiency, requiring CST evaluation. 3. Postmaturity increases risk of placental insufficiency, warranting CST. Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly indicate the need for CST in a pregnant client.
Question 8 of 9
When caring for a client in labor, which of the following infections can be treated during labor or immediately following birth? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the Above. All three infections - Gonorrhea, Chlamydia, and HIV - can be treated during labor or immediately following birth to prevent transmission to the newborn. Antibiotics can be administered for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia, while antiretroviral medications can be given for HIV. Prompt treatment is crucial to reduce the risk of vertical transmission. The other choices are incorrect because each infection listed can be effectively managed during labor or post-birth, making choice D the most comprehensive and accurate option.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is assisting the nurse manager with an educational session about ways to prevent TORCH infections during pregnancy with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statements by one of the session participants indicates understanding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients should avoid consuming undercooked meat while pregnant to prevent toxoplasmosis, a TORCH infection. Toxoplasmosis is commonly found in undercooked meat and can be harmful to the fetus. Seeking an immunization against rubella early in pregnancy (A) is important, but it does not prevent all TORCH infections. Prophylactic treatment for cytomegalovirus if detected during pregnancy (B) is not a standard practice. Avoiding crowded places during pregnancy (C) may reduce the risk of infections, but it is not specific to TORCH infections.