In a prenatal clinic, a client in the first trimester of pregnancy has a health record that includes this data: G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. How should the nurse interpret this information? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The data "G3 T1 P0 A1 L1" indicates the client has had 3 pregnancies (G3), 1 term delivery (T1), 0 preterm deliveries (P0), 1 living child (A1), and 1 living child currently (L1). Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client has one living child (A1) from one term delivery (T1). Choice D ("ALL OF THE ABOVE - has one living child") is correct as it summarizes the information accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not encompass all the aspects of the data provided in the client's health record.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume three to four servings of dairy each day. During the third trimester of pregnancy, calcium needs increase to support the baby's bone development. Dairy products are a rich source of calcium. Adolescents are still growing themselves, so adequate calcium intake is crucial for both the mother and baby. B: Increasing caloric intake by 600 to 700 calories is not specific to the third trimester and may lead to excessive weight gain, which can be harmful. C: Limiting sodium intake to less than 1 gram is not necessary during pregnancy, and some sodium is required for maintaining fluid balance. D: Increasing protein intake to 40 to 50 grams per day is important, but it is not specific to the third trimester and may vary based on individual needs.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it demonstrates an understanding of the importance of calcium intake for breastfeeding mothers. Calcium is essential for both the mother's health and the baby's bone development. Continuing calcium supplements shows a commitment to meeting nutritional needs. Incorrect choices: A: Having coffee is fine, but it's not directly related to postpartum nutrition needs. B: Folic acid is important for pregnancy but not specifically for increasing milk supply. C: While additional calories are needed during breastfeeding, the specific amount varies and is not always 330 calories per day.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The estimated date of delivery (EDD) is calculated by adding 280 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP). In this case, April 1st + 280 days = January 8, which is the correct EDD. Choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not account for the 280-day gestation period from the LMP.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dizziness. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker that can cause hypotension, leading to dizziness. This is a common side effect and needs to be monitored to prevent falls or injury. Blood-tinged sputum (A) is not typically associated with nifedipine use. Pallor (C) is not a common manifestation of nifedipine side effects. Somnolence (D) is also not a common side effect of nifedipine. Dizziness is the most relevant and potentially harmful manifestation to monitor for in a client receiving nifedipine for preterm labor.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased urine output. At 26 weeks of gestation, decreased urine output can be a sign of potential complications like preeclampsia or dehydration, which require immediate medical attention to prevent harm to the mother and baby. Leukorrhea (choice A) is a common pregnancy symptom and not typically concerning. Supine hypotension (choice B) is a known issue in pregnancy but usually occurs later in the third trimester due to pressure on the vena cava when lying on the back. Periodic numbness of the fingers (choice C) can be related to carpal tunnel syndrome, which is common in pregnancy but not typically urgent at 26 weeks unless severe and persistent.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct sequence for performing Leopold maneuvers is to first palpate the fundus to identify the fetal part (A), then determine the location of the fetal back (B), and finally palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet (C). Choosing option D (All of the Above) is correct because it encompasses all the necessary steps in the correct order to perform Leopold maneuvers effectively. Palpating the fundus helps identify the presenting part, determining the location of the fetal back provides information on the fetal lie, and palpating for the presenting part at the inlet helps confirm the position of the fetus. The other choices are incorrect because they do not provide the complete sequence required for performing Leopold maneuvers accurately.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because counting the fetal heart rate after a contraction helps determine baseline changes, which is essential for identifying fetal distress. This method allows for accurate assessment of fetal well-being in response to contractions. Choice A is incorrect as 15 seconds is not enough time to establish a baseline. Choice B is incorrect as auscultating every 5 minutes may not provide timely information during the active phase. Choice D is incorrect because auscultating every 30 minutes in the second stage may miss important changes in fetal status. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate choice for intermittent fetal heart monitoring.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maternal fever. Maternal fever can lead to tachycardia in the fetus due to the transfer of maternal antibodies, cytokines, and other inflammatory mediators across the placenta, affecting fetal heart rate. Maternal fever can indicate infection, which can cause fetal distress. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Fetal heart failure typically presents with bradycardia, not tachycardia. C: Maternal hypoglycemia can affect the fetus but is more likely to cause fetal bradycardia than tachycardia. D: Fetal head compression can result in decelerations but not necessarily tachycardia.