ICU patient with DIC from gram-negative infection. Which finding has immediate implications?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the absence of palpable radial/pedal pulses indicates poor perfusion, a critical concern in DIC. This finding suggests compromised blood flow, requiring urgent intervention to prevent tissue damage. Choices B, C, and D are not immediate concerns in DIC. Chest pain may indicate cardiac issues, but perfusion is the priority. Oxygen saturation at 87% is low but not as urgent as impaired perfusion. Mottling of hands and feet is a sign of poor perfusion but not as immediate as the absence of palpable pulses.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C (Tissue factor) Rationale: 1. Tissue factor initiates the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade by forming a complex with Factor VII. 2. This complex activates Factor X to Xa, leading to the common pathway of coagulation. 3. Factor XII is part of the intrinsic pathway and is not the primary initiator in vivo. 4. Thrombin is generated downstream in the cascade and amplifies coagulation but does not initiate it. 5. Factor X is activated further downstream in the common pathway and is not the primary initiator.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. This is the most common type of lymphoma due to its aggressive nature and frequent occurrence in adults. It accounts for about 30% of all non-Hodgkin lymphomas. Hodgkin lymphoma (A) is less common and has distinct diagnostic features. Follicular lymphoma (B) is indolent and typically affects older adults. Mantle-cell lymphoma (D) is rarer and characterized by a specific genetic abnormality. Therefore, based on prevalence and characteristics, diffuse large B-cell lymphoma is the most common type.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mature B cell immunophenotype. In ALL, a mature B cell immunophenotype is associated with a poorer prognosis because it indicates that the leukemia cells have progressed to a more advanced stage of differentiation, making them more aggressive and resistant to treatment. On the other hand, choices B, C, and D are good prognostic factors in ALL. Female gender is associated with a better response to treatment, hyperploidy is a favorable genetic feature, and age 4-10 years is a common age group with a higher likelihood of responding well to treatment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Identify symptoms of viral hemorrhagic fever Step 2: Recall common viruses causing viral hemorrhagic fever Step 3: Understand characteristics of virus families Step 4: Filoviruses, like Ebola and Marburg, are known to cause viral hemorrhagic fevers due to their high pathogenicity. Step 5: Togaviruses, Bunyaviruses, and Flaviviruses are not typically associated with viral hemorrhagic fevers. Summary: Filovirus is the correct answer as it is a known cause of viral hemorrhagic fevers, while the other choices are not commonly associated with this condition.