How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hyperkalemia?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In managing hyperkalemia, it is essential to administer insulin and glucose to shift potassium into the cells, restrict potassium intake to prevent further elevation of serum levels, and monitor the ECG for signs of potassium-induced cardiac effects. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as all of the provided actions are important in the management of hyperkalemia. Choice A alone is not sufficient as it only addresses shifting potassium intracellularly without preventing further elevation. Choice B alone is not enough as it does not address the immediate need to lower serum potassium levels. Choice C alone is insufficient as it only monitors for cardiac effects without addressing potassium levels or shifting mechanisms.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Increasing the client's oxygen flow rate should be the nurse's first action. Hypoxia is a common complication of pneumonia and can lead to confusion. Providing adequate oxygenation is essential in addressing hypoxia and improving the client's condition.\nOption B: Obtaining vital signs is important but addressing hypoxia takes precedence in the setting of new onset confusion.\nOption C: Administering an antibiotic is important for treating pneumonia but addressing hypoxia and confusion is the priority.\nOption D: Notifying the provider may be necessary but addressing the immediate physiological need of oxygenation should come first.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Excessive thirst and fruity breath odor. Diabetic ketoacidosis presents with these early signs due to ketone buildup in the body. Choice B, weight loss and increased urination, are more characteristic of uncontrolled diabetes but not specific to diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, nausea and vomiting, can occur in diabetic ketoacidosis but are not as early or specific as excessive thirst and fruity breath odor. Choice D, hypoglycemia and fatigue, are not typical signs of diabetic ketoacidosis; rather, diabetic ketoacidosis usually presents with hyperglycemia.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: After securing the airway, initiating IV fluids is the priority to prevent hypovolemic shock in clients with severe burns. IV fluids help maintain circulating volume and prevent a drop in blood pressure due to fluid loss. Providing pain management, offering emotional support, and preventing infection are important aspects of care but are secondary to ensuring adequate fluid resuscitation in clients with severe burns.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique when performing nasotracheal suctioning is to apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter. This method helps reduce trauma to the mucosa by preventing prolonged suctioning. Choice A is incorrect because inserting the suction catheter while the client is swallowing may increase the risk of aspiration. Choice C is incorrect as placing the catheter in a clean, dry location for later use is not a safe practice as it can lead to contamination. Choice D is incorrect since it does not address the proper technique involved in nasotracheal suctioning.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen and calling for emergency assistance are the immediate priorities when managing a suspected pulmonary embolism. Oxygen helps support the patient's respiratory function, while emergency assistance is crucial for further evaluation and treatment. Positioning the patient in a prone position or giving fluids can worsen the condition by impeding blood flow. Administering anticoagulants may be part of the treatment plan but is not the initial response. Thrombolytics and chest physiotherapy are not first-line treatments for suspected pulmonary embolism and can even be harmful without prior evaluation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Platelets 100,000/mm3." A platelet count of 100,000/mm3 is low and increases the client's risk for bleeding, which is crucial information to communicate during the change-of-shift report. Choices A, B, and C provide values within normal ranges and are not directly related to the client's postoperative status or risk for complications. Therefore, they are not the priority information to include in the report.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: During a seizure, the most appropriate action for a healthcare provider is to protect the patient's head. This helps prevent injury, especially considering the involuntary movements and potential thrashing associated with seizures. Restraint should be avoided as it can lead to further injury or distress for the patient. Inserting an airway is not recommended during an active seizure as the patient's airway may not be obstructed, and it could pose a risk of injury. Giving the patient water during a seizure is also not advisable as there is a risk of aspiration. Therefore, the priority is to ensure the patient's safety by protecting their head.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.