ATI LPN
ATI Pn Exit Exam Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hypertensive crisis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis, the immediate goal is to lower blood pressure to prevent organ damage. Administering antihypertensive medications helps achieve this goal efficiently. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and adjust medication as needed. Providing a high-sodium diet and fluid restriction (Choice B) can exacerbate hypertension by increasing blood pressure. Diuretics and oxygen therapy (Choice C) are not the first-line treatment for hypertensive crisis, as the priority is rapid blood pressure reduction. Providing IV fluids and monitoring for kidney failure (Choice D) are not primary interventions for managing hypertensive crisis; the focus is on blood pressure control and organ protection.
Question 2 of 5
What are the complications of untreated pneumonia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sepsis and respiratory failure. Untreated pneumonia can lead to severe complications such as sepsis, which is a life-threatening response to infection, and respiratory failure, where the lungs can no longer provide enough oxygen to the body. Heart failure and kidney failure (choice B) are not direct complications of untreated pneumonia. Pulmonary embolism and electrolyte imbalance (choice C) are also not commonly associated with untreated pneumonia. Liver failure and electrolyte imbalance (choice D) are not typical complications of pneumonia.
Question 3 of 5
What are the key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hypoglycemia typically presents with sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia is characterized by frequent urination and thirst. Therefore, the correct key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are that hypoglycemia includes symptoms like sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia involves symptoms such as frequent urination and thirst. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the characteristic symptoms of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia, as stated in the question.
Question 4 of 5
A charge nurse is teaching new staff members about factors that increase a client's risk of becoming violent. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include as the best predictor of future violence?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Previous violent behavior. This is considered the best predictor of future violent actions as individuals who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts again. Option A, experiencing delusions, although it can impact behavior, is not as strong of a predictor as past violent behavior. Option B, male gender, is a demographic factor but not as specific or predictive as a history of violence. Option D, a history of being in prison, may indicate past behavior but is not directly linked to future violent actions as a known history of violence.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.