ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with a potential myocardial infarction (MI)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. When assessing a patient with a potential myocardial infarction, it is crucial to assess symptoms, monitor vital signs like blood pressure and heart rate, and order an electrocardiogram (ECG) to evaluate for cardiac abnormalities. Choice B is incorrect because administering medications should be based on the findings of the assessment and diagnostic tests, not administered indiscriminately. Choice C is incorrect because the administration of thrombolytics and oxygen therapy should be based on specific criteria and should be done in a controlled setting. Choice D is incorrect as educating the patient on lifestyle changes is important for prevention but is not the immediate priority when managing a potential myocardial infarction.
Question 2 of 5
What are the key considerations for managing a patient with COPD?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The key considerations for managing a patient with COPD include oxygen therapy, which is essential to maintain adequate oxygen saturation levels. While bronchodilators are commonly used to manage COPD symptoms, they are not the primary consideration. Smoking cessation is crucial in preventing further damage but is not a direct management consideration. Pulmonary rehabilitation is beneficial for improving exercise capacity and quality of life but is not as crucial as ensuring adequate oxygen therapy.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following is an expected side effect of furosemide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Choice A, Bradycardia, is incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause a decrease in heart rate. Choice C, Increased blood pressure, is incorrect as furosemide is actually used to lower blood pressure by reducing fluid volume. Choice D, Increased urine output, is a common effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not an adverse side effect.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a colon resection. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Oxygen saturation. The priority assessment in this situation is oxygen saturation because postoperative clients are at risk for respiratory complications, such as hypoxia due to factors like anesthesia effects, impaired lung function, or pain interfering with deep breathing. Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to detect any respiratory compromise early. Capillary refill, bowel sounds, and temperature are important assessments but are not the priority in this immediate postoperative period.
Question 5 of 5
A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught about insulin administration by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include is to rotate injection sites with each dose. This practice is essential to prevent tissue damage and ensure proper insulin absorption. Option A is incorrect because insulin should not be injected into the muscle, but rather into the subcutaneous tissue. Option C is incorrect as insulin should be stored in the refrigerator to maintain its effectiveness. Option D is incorrect as massaging the injection site after administration can lead to faster absorption and potentially hypoglycemia.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-LPN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-LPN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access