ATI LPN
ATI Pn Exit Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with a potential myocardial infarction (MI)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. When assessing a patient with a potential myocardial infarction, it is crucial to assess symptoms, monitor vital signs like blood pressure and heart rate, and order an electrocardiogram (ECG) to evaluate for cardiac abnormalities. Choice B is incorrect because administering medications should be based on the findings of the assessment and diagnostic tests, not administered indiscriminately. Choice C is incorrect because the administration of thrombolytics and oxygen therapy should be based on specific criteria and should be done in a controlled setting. Choice D is incorrect as educating the patient on lifestyle changes is important for prevention but is not the immediate priority when managing a potential myocardial infarction.
Question 2 of 9
After sustaining a closed head injury and numerous lacerations and abrasions to the face and neck, a five-year-old child is admitted to the emergency room. The client is unconscious and has minimal response to noxious stimuli. Which of the following assessments, if observed by the nurse three hours after admission, should be reported to the physician?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clear fluid draining from the ear can indicate cerebrospinal fluid leakage, which is a serious concern after a head injury. This leakage can signify a skull fracture or damage to the meninges, potentially leading to infection. Therefore, it should be reported immediately for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are typical findings after head trauma and are not as urgent as the presence of clear fluid draining from the ear.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client with dementia. Which of the following findings should the nurse address first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In clients with dementia, restlessness and agitation are important symptoms that the nurse should address first. These symptoms can indicate underlying issues such as pain, discomfort, or unmet needs, and addressing them promptly can prevent complications. Psychosocial stressors may contribute to the client's condition but should not be the initial priority. Frequent wandering at night and urinary incontinence are also common in dementia but do not pose immediate risks compared to restlessness and agitation.
Question 4 of 9
A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.
Question 5 of 9
What are the nursing interventions for a patient with a pressure ulcer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a patient with a pressure ulcer is to clean the wound and apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This promotes healing by creating a moist environment conducive to the wound healing process. Choice B is incorrect because while nutrition is important for wound healing, a high-protein diet alone is not a specific intervention for a pressure ulcer. Choice C is incorrect as antibiotics are only used if there is an infection present. Choice D is also incorrect as a low-sodium diet and monitoring for fluid retention are more related to conditions like heart failure or kidney disease, not specifically pressure ulcer care.
Question 6 of 9
A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has coronary artery disease (CAD) and a prescription for aspirin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider report to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A history of gastrointestinal bleeding is a critical finding to report to the healthcare provider because it is a contraindication for aspirin use in individuals with CAD. Aspirin can further increase the risk of bleeding in individuals with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are not directly contraindications for aspirin use in this scenario. Asthma, liver disease, and hypertension are not typically contraindications for prescribing aspirin to patients with CAD.
Question 7 of 9
What are the key considerations for managing a patient with COPD?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The key considerations for managing a patient with COPD include oxygen therapy, which is essential to maintain adequate oxygen saturation levels. While bronchodilators are commonly used to manage COPD symptoms, they are not the primary consideration. Smoking cessation is crucial in preventing further damage but is not a direct management consideration. Pulmonary rehabilitation is beneficial for improving exercise capacity and quality of life but is not as crucial as ensuring adequate oxygen therapy.
Question 8 of 9
Which intervention is most important for a client with chronic heart failure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's weight daily to assess fluid balance in clients with chronic heart failure. Monitoring weight helps in detecting fluid retention or fluid loss, which is crucial in managing heart failure. Encouraging fluid intake to prevent dehydration (choice A) may worsen fluid overload in heart failure patients. Limiting sodium intake (choice C) is essential but not the most important intervention compared to monitoring weight. Restricting daily activity (choice D) is not recommended as it is important for clients with heart failure to engage in appropriate levels of physical activity to maintain their overall health.
Question 9 of 9
A client with an acute myocardial infarction is concerned about extreme fatigue. What is the best strategy to promote independence in self-care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with rest periods is the best strategy to promote independence in self-care for a client with acute myocardial infarction. This approach allows the client to regain independence while considering the need for rest to prevent overexertion. Instructing the client to limit all activity until fully rested (Choice A) may hinder independence by promoting inactivity. Assigning assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks (Choice C) does not promote the client's independence. Asking the client's family to assist with self-care (Choice D) may not foster the client's self-reliance and may not always be feasible.