ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A Questions
Question 1 of 5
Four clients present to the emergency department. The nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client with slurred speech and a headache may be experiencing a stroke, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent irreversible brain damage. While each client requires prompt assessment and care, the priority is to address potentially life-threatening conditions first. Choices A, B, and C, although important, do not present with symptoms as critical as those of a possible stroke, which necessitates urgent intervention.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has GERD. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect to find?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atypical chest pain. GERD often presents with atypical chest pain due to acid reflux, which can mimic the symptoms of cardiac conditions but is related to the esophagus. Shortness of breath (choice A) is not a typical assessment finding in GERD. Rebound tenderness (choice B) is associated with peritoneal inflammation, not GERD. Vomiting blood (choice D) is a severe symptom that may indicate esophageal damage but is not a common assessment finding in GERD.
Question 3 of 5
While caring for a newborn under phototherapy lights, what is an appropriate nursing action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure an eye shield is covering the eyes. This action is essential to protect the newborn's eyes from the bright light used in phototherapy. Applying lotion to the exposed skin (Choice B) is not necessary and may interfere with the treatment. Offering glucose water between feedings (Choice C) is not indicated and may not be appropriate for a newborn undergoing phototherapy. Discontinuing breastfeeding during treatment (Choice D) is not recommended as breastfeeding should be continued unless contraindicated.
Question 4 of 5
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a long arm cast. Which of the following findings indicates a moderate complication when assessing for acute compartment syndrome?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Edema is a common sign of acute compartment syndrome, which is a medical emergency caused by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, requiring immediate intervention. Shortness of breath (Choice A) is more indicative of a respiratory issue rather than acute compartment syndrome. Petechiae (Choice B) are pinpoint, round spots that appear on the skin due to bleeding under the skin and are not typically associated with acute compartment syndrome. Change in mental status (Choice C) is more suggestive of neurological issues rather than acute compartment syndrome.
Question 5 of 5
A client receiving IV moderate (conscious) sedation with midazolam has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of respiratory depression and central nervous system depression due to midazolam sedation. Administering flumazenil is the correct action as it is the antidote for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and can reverse the sedative effects to restore respiratory function. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) may worsen respiratory compromise. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not the first-line intervention for sedation-related respiratory depression. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated as there are no signs of airway obstruction requiring suctioning.