ATI LPN
ATI Adult Medical Surgical Questions
Question 1 of 5
For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing montelukast?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of prescribing montelukast for a patient with asthma is to prevent asthma attacks. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that helps to reduce inflammation in the airways, thereby preventing asthma symptoms and attacks. It is not used to relieve acute bronchospasm (Choice A), as it is not a fast-acting rescue medication like a bronchodilator. Montelukast also does not thin respiratory secretions (Choice C) or suppress cough (Choice D) as its main mechanism of action is to prevent and control asthma symptoms by inhibiting leukotrienes.
Question 2 of 5
A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. What is an important side effect for the healthcare provider to monitor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine is known to cause metabolic side effects, including weight gain. This is important to monitor as it can lead to various health issues such as diabetes and cardiovascular problems. Hypertension (A), hypoglycemia (C), and bradycardia (D) are not commonly associated with olanzapine use, making them less likely side effects to monitor in this case.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What is the primary action of this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduce fluid retention. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing urine production, leading to the removal of excess fluid and sodium from the body. This helps reduce fluid volume overload in conditions like heart failure. Choice A is incorrect because while reducing fluid retention may indirectly improve cardiac output by reducing preload, furosemide itself does not directly increase cardiac output. Choice C is incorrect as furosemide does not have a direct effect on heart rate. Choice D is incorrect because while furosemide may lower blood pressure as a result of reducing fluid volume, its primary action is to reduce fluid retention, not specifically lower blood pressure.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is taking prednisone. What is an important side effect for the nurse to monitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperglycemia. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause an increase in blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing insulin sensitivity. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is crucial as it can lead to serious complications such as diabetic ketoacidosis. Bradycardia (B) and hypotension (C) are not typical side effects of prednisone, as it tends to cause fluid retention and hypertension. Hyperkalemia (D) is also unlikely as prednisone can actually cause hypokalemia due to increased renal potassium excretion.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT)/INR. This is because warfarin is a medication that affects the clotting ability of the blood by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. PT/INR is the specific laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. PT measures how long it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes the PT results. Monitoring PT/INR helps to ensure that the patient is within the target therapeutic range for anticoagulation. Incorrect choices: A: Complete blood count (CBC) - CBC does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. C: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) - PTT is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy, not warfarin. D: Serum potassium level - Monitoring serum potassium level is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.