ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Questions
Question 1 of 9
During the admission assessment of a newborn, which anatomical landmark should be used for measuring the newborn's chest circumference?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nipple line. This landmark is used for measuring newborn chest circumference as it ensures consistency in measurement and is a reliable reference point. The nipple line is anatomically consistent and easily identifiable, making it the ideal landmark for accurate measurements. Rationale: A: Sternal notch is not recommended for chest circumference measurement in newborns as it is not a consistent landmark and may vary among individuals. C: Xiphoid process is not suitable for chest circumference measurement as it is located at the lower end of the sternum and not commonly used for this purpose. D: Fifth intercostal space is not a recommended landmark for chest circumference measurement in newborns as it is not as reliable and consistent as the nipple line.
Question 2 of 9
A client in active labor is being prepared for epidural analgesia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Obtain a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to induction. This is important to assess the fetal well-being and baseline status before initiating epidural analgesia. It helps in detecting any fetal distress or abnormalities that may be exacerbated by the epidural. A: Having the client sit upright with legs crossed is not recommended as it may interfere with the procedure and comfort of the client. B: Administering a 500 mL bolus of lactated Ringer's solution is not directly related to preparing for epidural analgesia. C: Informing the client about the duration of anesthetic effect is important, but ensuring fetal well-being through EFM monitoring is a priority before the procedure.
Question 3 of 9
A client is scheduled for a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test at 15 weeks of gestation. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of this test. What explanation should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test is specifically used to screen for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities in the fetus. Alpha-fetoprotein levels in the mother's blood can indicate the presence of such abnormalities. This test is typically done around 15-20 weeks of gestation. Choice B is incorrect because the maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test is not used to assess various markers of fetal well-being. Choice C is incorrect because it does not identify Rh incompatibility, which is typically detected through other tests. Choice D is incorrect because the test is not primarily for spinal defects, but rather for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities.
Question 4 of 9
A client is scheduled for a cesarean birth based on fetal lung maturity. Which finding indicates that the fetal lungs are mature?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2:1. This ratio indicates fetal lung maturity as it signifies adequate production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, essential for proper lung function after birth. Absence of Phosphatidylglycerol (PG) (Choice A) indicates immaturity, Biophysical profile score of 8 (Choice B) assesses overall fetal well-being, not lung maturity, and Reactive nonstress test (Choice D) evaluates fetal well-being, not lung maturity. The L/S ratio of 2:1 is the most reliable indicator of fetal lung maturity.
Question 5 of 9
A client with a BMI of 26.5 is seeking advice on weight gain during pregnancy at the first prenatal visit. Which of the following responses should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (15 to 25 pounds) because this recommendation aligns with the guidelines for weight gain during pregnancy for a client with a BMI of 26.5. The Institute of Medicine recommends this weight gain range for individuals in the overweight category. It is important to strike a balance between gaining enough weight to support the health of the fetus and not gaining excess weight that may lead to complications. Choice A (11 to 20 pounds) may not provide enough weight gain for optimal pregnancy outcomes, while choice C (25 to 35 pounds) may lead to excessive weight gain. Choice D (1 pound per week) is too specific and does not account for individual variations in weight gain patterns during pregnancy. It is crucial to tailor weight gain recommendations based on the client's BMI to ensure a healthy pregnancy.
Question 6 of 9
A client reports unrelieved episiotomy pain 8 hours following a vaginal birth. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Apply an ice pack to the affected area. Ice helps reduce inflammation and numb the pain, providing relief for the client. Step 1: Ice constricts blood vessels, reducing swelling and pain. Step 2: Ice numbs the area, providing immediate relief. Step 3: Ice is recommended for acute pain management. Summary: B (warm sitz bath) may increase blood flow and exacerbate swelling. C (antiseptic solution) is not indicated for pain relief. D (hot pack) may worsen inflammation and pain.
Question 7 of 9
A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the indirect Coombs test is used to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In this scenario, the mother is Rh-negative, so if she has been sensitized to Rh-positive blood during childbirth, her immune system may produce antibodies that could potentially harm future Rh-positive pregnancies. This test helps identify the presence of these antibodies early on so appropriate interventions can be initiated to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: This test does not determine if kernicterus will occur in the newborn. Kernicterus is a severe complication of jaundice, which may result from hemolytic disease of the newborn if untreated. B: The indirect Coombs test does not detect Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. It specifically looks for Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. D: The test does not determine the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood. It focuses on detecting antibodies in
Question 8 of 9
A client is learning how to check basal temperature to determine ovulation. When should the client check her temperature?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Every morning before arising. This is because basal body temperature is the lowest body temperature attained during rest, typically just before waking up. Checking the temperature at this time provides the most accurate measurement of basal temperature. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because ovulation typically occurs around 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period, not on days 13 to 17 specifically (A), 1 hour following intercourse is not a reliable indicator of ovulation (C), and basal temperature should be checked in the morning, not before going to bed at night (D).
Question 9 of 9
A client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is in active labor has fetal heart tones located above the umbilicus at midline. The fetus is likely in which of the following positions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Frank breech. In a frank breech position, the buttocks of the fetus are presenting first, which is why the fetal heart tones can be heard above the umbilicus at midline. In this position, the feet are near the head, causing the buttocks to be the presenting part. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in a cephalic position, the head would be presenting, in a transverse position, the baby would be lying sideways, and in a posterior position, the baby's back would be against the mother's back.