ATI LPN
Skin Integrity NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
During major surgery, the patient is considered at risk for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Prolonged positioning risks pressure injuries or nerve damage during surgery, per perioperative nursing. Fasting is short-term, not primary. Hypervolemia is possible but monitored. Hypertension isn't fluid-driven typically. Immobility's physical harm is a top intra-op concern, LPNs note in recovery, making it the correct risk.
Question 2 of 5
You are admitting a patient with an infected abdominal wound with MRSA. Appropriate nursing care includes:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: MRSA requires infection control. Monitoring temperature and WBC tracks infection, per nursing standards, as fever/leukocytosis signal spread. Intake/output is unrelated. Respiratory precautions fit TB, not MRSA (contact). Hallway ambulation risks transmission. Temp/WBC monitoring guides treatment, an LPN task, making it the correct care.
Question 3 of 5
The need for protective isolation is being explained to the patient who asks, 'How can I hug my children?' An appropriate response would be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Protective isolation shields immunocompromised patients. Explaining microbial risk and immune weakness justifies restrictions, per patient education, fostering understanding. Glass door or intercom are logistics, not reasons. Time reassurance is vague. Clarity on infection risk supports compliance, an LPN role, making it the correct response.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with osteoarthritis has daily right knee pain. This type of pain usually has the best result if treated by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Osteoarthritis pain inflammatory, mechanical responds best to ibuprofen (Choice B), an NSAID reducing inflammation, per arthritis guidelines. Oxycodone is for severe pain, not first-line. Lyrica targets neuropathic pain. Prednisone is for flares, not daily. Ibuprofen balances efficacy and safety, an LPN med option, making it the correct treatment.
Question 5 of 5
You are caring for a patient with an epidural infusion. Which sign requires immediate provider notification?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Epidural analgesia risks hypotension from vasodilation. BP 80/60 signals shock, needing urgent notification, per anesthesia protocols. Temp 99.5°F is mild. Respirations 12/min are normal. Low urine is concerning but slower. Hypotension threatens perfusion, an LPN alert, making it the correct sign.