ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
During active labor, a nurse notes tachycardia on the external fetal monitor tracing. Which of the following conditions should the nurse identify as a potential cause of the heart rate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maternal fever. Maternal fever can lead to tachycardia in the fetus due to the transfer of maternal antibodies, cytokines, and other inflammatory mediators across the placenta, affecting fetal heart rate. Maternal fever can indicate infection, which can cause fetal distress. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Fetal heart failure typically presents with bradycardia, not tachycardia. C: Maternal hypoglycemia can affect the fetus but is more likely to cause fetal bradycardia than tachycardia. D: Fetal head compression can result in decelerations but not necessarily tachycardia.
Question 2 of 9
During active labor, a nurse notes tachycardia on the external fetal monitor tracing. Which of the following conditions should the nurse identify as a potential cause of the heart rate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maternal fever. Maternal fever can lead to tachycardia in the fetus due to the transfer of maternal antibodies, cytokines, and other inflammatory mediators across the placenta, affecting fetal heart rate. Maternal fever can indicate infection, which can cause fetal distress. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Fetal heart failure typically presents with bradycardia, not tachycardia. C: Maternal hypoglycemia can affect the fetus but is more likely to cause fetal bradycardia than tachycardia. D: Fetal head compression can result in decelerations but not necessarily tachycardia.
Question 3 of 9
A client who is pregnant is scheduled for a contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following findings are indications for this procedure? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, All of the Above. 1. Decreased fetal movement indicates fetal distress, necessitating CST. 2. IUGR implies potential placental insufficiency, requiring CST evaluation. 3. Postmaturity increases risk of placental insufficiency, warranting CST. Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly indicate the need for CST in a pregnant client.
Question 4 of 9
A woman in a women's health clinic is receiving teaching about nutritional intake during her 8th week of gestation. The healthcare provider should advise the woman to increase her daily intake of which of the following nutrients?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Iron. During pregnancy, the body's demand for iron increases to support the growing fetus and placenta. Iron is essential for the production of hemoglobin, which carries oxygen to the baby. Inadequate iron intake can lead to maternal anemia and complications. Calcium is important for bone health, but the focus in the 8th week of gestation should be on iron. Vitamin E is an antioxidant that is important for overall health but not specifically targeted for increased intake in the 8th week of pregnancy. Vitamin D is crucial for calcium absorption and bone health, but iron takes precedence during this stage of pregnancy.
Question 5 of 9
A client is in labor, and a nurse observes late decelerations on the electronic fetal monitor. What should the nurse identify as the first action that the registered nurse should take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assist the client into the left-lateral position. This is the first action because it helps improve placental perfusion, which can alleviate late decelerations associated with uteroplacental insufficiency. The left-lateral position promotes optimal blood flow and oxygenation to the placenta by reducing pressure on the vena cava and improving maternal perfusion. This position can potentially prevent further fetal distress. Summary of other choices: B: Applying a fetal scalp electrode is not the first action for addressing late decelerations. It may be considered later for more precise monitoring. C: Inserting an IV catheter is important but not the priority when late decelerations are observed. D: Performing a vaginal exam is not indicated as the first action for addressing late decelerations and could potentially increase the risk of infection.
Question 6 of 9
A client who is postpartum is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. For which of the following clinical manifestations should the client be instructed to monitor and report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Unilateral breast pain in a postpartum client can indicate mastitis, a bacterial infection of the breast tissue. This requires prompt medical attention to prevent complications like abscess formation. Other Choices: A: Abdominal striae are normal after pregnancy and don't require immediate intervention. B: Mild temperature elevation is common postpartum and doesn't necessarily indicate infection. D: Brownish-red discharge on day 5 is typically normal lochia and not concerning unless foul-smelling or accompanied by fever.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who reports abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. The client states, 'I missed one menstrual cycle and cannot be pregnant because I have an intrauterine device.' The nurse should suspect which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ectopic pregnancy. Given the client's symptoms of right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, missed menstrual cycle, and presence of an intrauterine device, these are classic signs of an ectopic pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube, leading to abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Missed abortion would typically present with cramping, bleeding, and passage of tissue. C: Severe preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria, not the symptoms described. D: Hydatidiform mole would typically present with vaginal bleeding and uterine enlargement, but not the sharp abdominal pain described.
Question 8 of 9
A client in a family planning clinic requests oral contraceptives. Which of the following findings in the client's history should be recognized as contraindications to oral contraceptives? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Cholecystitis, hypertension, and migraine headaches are all contraindications to oral contraceptives. Cholecystitis can be exacerbated by oral contraceptives. Hypertension increases the risk of cardiovascular events with oral contraceptives. Migraine headaches, especially with aura, are associated with an increased risk of stroke when combined with oral contraceptives. Therefore, considering these risks, it is crucial to recognize these findings as contraindications to prescribing oral contraceptives.
Question 9 of 9
A client who is at 7 weeks of gestation is experiencing nausea and vomiting in the morning. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Eat crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed. This recommendation helps alleviate morning sickness by providing a small, easily digestible snack to settle the stomach before getting up. It helps stabilize blood sugar levels and prevent an empty stomach exacerbating nausea. Explanation for why B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Awakening during the night to eat a snack can disrupt sleep patterns and is not necessary for managing morning sickness. C: Skipping breakfast and waiting until lunch may lead to prolonged nausea and low blood sugar levels, worsening symptoms. D: Eating a large evening meal can increase the likelihood of acid reflux and indigestion, making morning sickness worse.