Decreasing the demands on the heart is a priority in care for the infant with congestive heart failure (CHF). In evaluating the infant’s status, which of the following is indicative of achieving this goal?

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Question 1 of 5

Decreasing the demands on the heart is a priority in care for the infant with congestive heart failure (CHF). In evaluating the infant’s status, which of the following is indicative of achieving this goal?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Appropriate weight gain for age. In congestive heart failure, decreasing the demands on the heart is crucial. Appropriate weight gain indicates good cardiac output and effective management of fluid retention. Irritability (choice A) can be a sign of distress, capillary refill of more than 5 seconds (choice B) indicates poor perfusion, and positioning in high Fowler position (choice D) is more related to respiratory support rather than decreasing demands on the heart.

Question 2 of 5

What measure is important in managing hypercalcemia in a child who is immobilized?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide adequate hydration. Hypercalcemia in an immobilized child can be managed by ensuring adequate hydration to help promote renal excretion of excess calcium. Hydration helps prevent further calcium buildup in the blood and reduces the risk of complications. It is crucial to maintain a good fluid balance to support the kidneys in eliminating excess calcium. Changing position frequently (choice B) may help prevent complications related to immobility but does not directly address hypercalcemia. Encouraging a diet high in calcium (choice C) is contraindicated in hypercalcemia as it can exacerbate the condition. Providing a diet high in calories for healing (choice D) is important for overall nutrition but does not specifically target the management of hypercalcemia in an immobilized child.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following pairs of associations is mismatched?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because large granular lymphocytes are actually natural killer (NK) cells, not T cells. NK cells are part of the innate immune system, while T cells are part of the adaptive immune system. Megakaryocytes produce platelets, B cells differentiate into plasma cells to produce antibodies, and monocytes differentiate into macrophages to engulf pathogens. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are all correctly matched associations.

Question 4 of 5

What is a side effect of xanthine oxidase inhibitors? (Select ONE that does not apply)

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Retinal damage. Xanthine oxidase inhibitors like Allopurinol can lead to retinal damage due to accumulation of toxic metabolites. Bone marrow suppression (A), nausea (B), and vomiting (C) are not typically associated with xanthine oxidase inhibitors. This is because these drugs mainly affect purine metabolism, leading to increased uric acid levels, rather than directly affecting the bone marrow or gastrointestinal system.

Question 5 of 5

Which patient would be unlikely to benefit from iron supplements?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Patient with hereditary hemochromatosis. This genetic condition causes the body to absorb too much iron, leading to iron overload. Iron supplements would exacerbate the condition. Patients experiencing blood loss (A) would benefit from iron supplements to replenish lost iron. Pregnant women (B) require increased iron for fetal development. Patients with limited access to healthy foods (D) may benefit from iron supplements to prevent deficiency.

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