ATI LPN
Immune System Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Conventional treatment is for Rai stage II
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chemotherapy. In Rai stage II of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), chemotherapy is the conventional treatment to reduce cancer cells and prevent progression. Antibiotics (choice A) are not the primary treatment for CLL. Antivirals (choice C) are used for viral infections, not CLL. Rest (choice D) alone is not sufficient to treat CLL and may lead to disease progression. Chemotherapy targets cancer cells, making it the appropriate treatment for Rai stage II CLL.
Question 2 of 5
During the Medullary Phase of hematopoietic development, which bone is the first to show hematopoietic activity?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: The Medullary Phase starts in the 6th week of gestation. Step 2: Hematopoiesis starts in the yolk sac and then moves to the liver, spleen, and bone marrow. Step 3: The clavicle is the first bone to show hematopoietic activity during this phase due to its unique development timeline. Step 4: Other choices like the femur, iliac crest, and skull develop hematopoietic activity later in fetal development. Summary: The clavicle is the correct answer as it is the first bone to exhibit hematopoietic activity during the Medullary Phase, while the other choices develop this activity later in the developmental process.
Question 3 of 5
In the bone marrow, RBC precursors are located:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because RBC precursors are located surrounding macrophages near the sinus membrane in the bone marrow. This location allows for the interaction between macrophages and developing RBCs, facilitating the removal of nuclei from maturing RBCs. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because RBC precursors are not typically found in the center of hematopoietic cords, adjacent to megakaryocytes, or surrounding fat cells in apoptotic islands in the bone marrow.
Question 4 of 5
What is the diagnosis and the underlying clinical cause of these blood results? (60-year-old man with blood in stools, fatigue, weight loss, Hb 120 g/L, WCC 14.9 x 10^9/L, MCV 69 fL, Ferritin 18 ng/mL)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (B): 1. Low Hb (120 g/L) and MCV (69 fL) indicate microcytic anemia. 2. High WCC (14.9 x 10^9/L) suggests an inflammatory response. 3. Ferritin (18 ng/mL) is low, indicating iron deficiency. 4. Symptoms of blood in stools, fatigue, weight loss are concerning for colorectal cancer. 5. Therefore, the correct diagnosis is iron deficiency anemia due to colorectal cancer. Summary of incorrect choices: A: Iron deficiency anemia due to poor diet - Ferritin levels would typically be low in this case, but other results do not support this choice. C: Vitamin B12 deficiency due to pernicious anemia - MCV is low, not high as expected in vitamin B12 deficiency. D: Thalassemia due to genetic mutation - Thalassemia would present with microcytic anemia
Question 5 of 5
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient? (17-year-old with fever, night sweats, painful lumps in neck/armpits when drinking)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis for the patient is B: Hodgkin lymphoma. The symptoms of fever, night sweats, and painful lumps in the neck/armpits are classic signs of Hodgkin lymphoma. The Reed-Sternberg cells seen in Hodgkin lymphoma are characteristic and differentiate it from non-Hodgkin lymphoma. Infectious mononucleosis typically presents with sore throat and fatigue, not painful lumps. Tuberculosis usually manifests with respiratory symptoms. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma may present similarly, but the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells points towards Hodgkin lymphoma.