Chemical digestion of carbohydrates begins in the

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Question 1 of 5

Chemical digestion of carbohydrates begins in the

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: oral cavity. The chemical digestion of carbohydrates begins in the mouth, specifically the oral cavity, where salivary amylase breaks down complex carbohydrates into simpler sugars. The enzyme amylase helps start the process of carbohydrate digestion before the food reaches the stomach. In contrast, the esophagus is not involved in digestion; the stomach primarily digests proteins with the help of gastric enzymes; and the duodenum is where further digestion of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins occurs with the help of pancreatic enzymes and bile.

Question 2 of 5

Gastric glands increase their secretory activity in response to a hormone released from the

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: stomach. Gastric glands increase their secretory activity in response to the hormone gastrin released from the stomach. Gastrin stimulates the release of gastric acid and other digestive enzymes. The other choices, A: pancreas, C: liver, and D: duodenum, do not release hormones directly involved in regulating gastric gland secretory activity. Pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon, liver secretes bile, and duodenum secretes hormones like secretin and cholecystokinin, but none of these directly influence gastric gland secretions.

Question 3 of 5

The 'ball' of food that is swallowed and moved through the esophagus is called the

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: bolus. A bolus refers to the rounded mass of food that is formed in the mouth and swallowed, moving through the esophagus to the stomach. This process is essential for digestion to occur properly. Choice A, sphincter, is incorrect as it is a muscular ring that regulates the flow of substances. Choice B, cannula, is a tube used for medical purposes, not related to food digestion. Choice D, chyme, is the partially digested food mixed with stomach acid, not the initial mass of food swallowed.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following factors does NOT register a score of 1 in the Well's Score for diagnosis of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C Rationale: 1. Well's Score is used to assess the probability of DVT. 2. A score of 1 is assigned for each factor present. 3. In this case, if a diagnosis is as likely or more likely than DVT, it would not add to the DVT probability. 4. Therefore, this factor does NOT register a score of 1 in the Well's Score. Summary: A: History of being bedridden for >= 3 days because of surgery within 4 weeks - registers a score of 1 as it is a risk factor for DVT. B: Localised tenderness along distribution of deep veins - registers a score of 1 as it is a sign of DVT. D: Unilateral pitting oedema - registers a score of 1 as it is a symptom of DVT.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following features is most consistent with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A: 1. A chronic productive cough is a key symptom of COPD due to excess mucus production. 2. This cough is persistent and lasts for a prolonged period, reflecting airway inflammation. 3. Productive cough is often associated with sputum production in COPD patients. 4. The presence of a chronic productive cough aligns with the pathophysiology of COPD. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: A nocturnal cough may be seen in conditions like asthma but is not specific to COPD. C: A wheeze is more common in asthma and may occur in COPD exacerbations, but not a consistent feature. D: COPD typically develops after years of exposure to risk factors, so onset at 25 years old is unlikely.

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